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		<title>Writ Challenging GST Show Cause Notice Dismissed as Adjudication Authority Must Decide Objections First</title>
		<link>https://www.taxheal.com/bharat-parashar-and-anil-kshetarpal-jj.html</link>
		
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Ashwani Kumar]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Fri, 02 Oct 2026 11:13:13 +0000</pubDate>
				<category><![CDATA[GST]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Deputy Commissioner]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Dhruv Medicos (P.) Ltd.]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[HIGH COURT OF DELHI]]></category>
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					<description><![CDATA[<p>Writ Challenging GST Show Cause Notice Dismissed as Adjudication Authority Must Decide Objections First Writ Challenging GST Show Cause Notice Dismissed as Adjudication Authority Must Decide Objections First Issue Whether a writ petition under Article 226 challenging a Show Cause Notice (SCN) issued under Section 74 is maintainable when statutory adjudication proceedings have commenced and… <span class="read-more"><a href="https://www.taxheal.com/bharat-parashar-and-anil-kshetarpal-jj.html">Read More &#187;</a></span></p>
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<h2 style="text-align: center;"><strong>Writ Challenging GST Show Cause Notice Dismissed as Adjudication Authority Must Decide Objections First</strong></h2>
</div>
<div></div>
<div>Writ Challenging GST Show Cause Notice Dismissed as Adjudication Authority Must Decide Objections First</div>
<div id="model-response-message-contentr_fae95a3e8b5b051d" class="markdown markdown-main-panel md-content enable-luminous-fast-follows enable-updated-hr-color tutor-markdown-rendering" dir="ltr" aria-busy="false" aria-live="polite">
<h3 data-path-to-node="1">Issue</h3>
<div>Whether a writ petition under Article 226 challenging a Show Cause Notice (SCN) issued under Section 74 is maintainable when statutory adjudication proceedings have commenced and the SCN does not finally determine tax liability.</div>
<h4 data-path-to-node="3">Facts</h4>
<ul data-path-to-node="4">
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="4,0,0" data-index-in-node="0">Audit Initiation:</b> The petitioner, a distributor of medicines, underwent a GST audit under Rule 101 initiated via Form GST ADT-01.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="4,1,0" data-index-in-node="0">Alleged Coercive Recovery:</b> During the audit, the audit team allegedly expanded its scope beyond the original tax period and obtained Rs. 40.10 lakhs via DRC-03 under coercion.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="4,2,0" data-index-in-node="0">Audit Findings:</b> The Audit Memo proposed a demand of Rs. 75.41 lakhs plus interest and penalty without initial workings, and the subsequent Audit Report appropriated the DRC-03 deposit. Detailed computation workings were provided to the petitioner later.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="4,3,0" data-index-in-node="0">Pre-Notice &amp; SCN Issuance:</b> Form GST DRC-01A was issued proposing a demand under Section 74. The petitioner filed a detailed reply disputing the invocation of extended limitation for 2017-18, audit scope, jurisdiction, computation errors, and coercive appropriation.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="4,4,0" data-index-in-node="0">Issuance of SCN:</b> The Revenue issued an SCN recording that the petitioner&#8217;s reply was unsatisfactory.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="4,5,0" data-index-in-node="0">Writ Petition:</b> The petitioner filed a writ petition seeking to quash the SCN and restrain the appropriation of DRC-03 deposits, citing violation of Rule 101(4).</div>
</li>
</ul>
<h4 data-path-to-node="5">Decision</h4>
<ul data-path-to-node="6">
<li>
<div>Held in favor of the Revenue.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>Statutory adjudication proceedings had already commenced with the issuance of the SCN, which merely proposed a demand and did not finally determine tax liability.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>All factual and legal objections—including the voluntariness and appropriation of DRC-03 payments, invocation of extended limitation, computation disputes, audit scope, and jurisdictional issues—must be raised before and evaluated by the Adjudicating Authority.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>High Courts will not ordinarily interfere at the SCN stage under writ jurisdiction when adequate statutory adjudication mechanisms exist.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>The petitioner was permitted to submit complete objections before the Adjudicating Authority for due consideration.</div>
</li>
</ul>
<h4 data-path-to-node="7">Key Takeaways</h4>
<ol start="1" data-path-to-node="8">
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="8,0,0" data-index-in-node="0">Prematurity of Writ Against SCN:</b> Courts will generally refrain from entertaining writ petitions filed against a Show Cause Notice, as an SCN only initiates adjudication and does not constitute a final determination of tax demand.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="8,1,0" data-index-in-node="0">Adjudication of Coercive DRC-03 Deposits:</b> Allegations regarding coercive recovery or involuntary tax payments made through DRC-03 during audit operations fall within the domain of the Adjudicating Authority to examine during SCN adjudication.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="8,2,0" data-index-in-node="0">Exhaustion of Statutory Remedies:</b> Jurisdictional, computation, and limitation challenges raised in response to an audit or SCN must be adjudicated by the statutory authority before invoking writ remedies under Article 226.</div>
</li>
</ol>
<div>
<div id="111070000000000010" style="text-align: center;">HIGH COURT OF DELHI</div>
<div id="" style="text-align: center;">Dhruv Medicos (P.) Ltd.</div>
<div style="text-align: center;">v.</div>
<div id="" style="text-align: center;">Deputy Commissioner</div>
<div id="dbs_judge" style="text-align: center;"><span id="111170000000187976">Bharat Parashar</span> and <span id="111170000000088156">Anil Kshetarpal</span>, JJ.</div>
<div style="text-align: center;">W.P.(C) No. 10213 OF 2025<br />
CM APPL. No. 42602 OF 2025</div>
<div style="text-align: center;">SEPTEMBER  29, 2026</div>
</div>
</div>
<div></div>
<div>
<div id="digest">
<div><b>Preetam Singh</b>, Adv.<i> for the Petitioner. </i><b>Arun Khatri</b>, SSC, <b>Mudit Gupta</b>, Sr. Standing Counsel, <b>Ms. Anoushka Bhalla</b>, <b>Pranavjeet</b>, Advs., <b>K.V. Bhaskar Reddy</b>, Asstt. Commissioner, <b>Tribhuwan Yadav</b>, Deputy Commissioner<i> for the Respondent.</i></div>
</div>
<div id="caseOrder">
<div>
<div>JUDGMENT</div>
<div></div>
<div><b>Anil Kshetarpal, J. </b>&#8211; Through the present Writ Petition, the Petitioner assails the proceedings initiated pursuant to the audit conducted in respect of the Petitioner under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 [hereinafter referred to as „CGST Act&#8217;]. The principal challenge in the present proceedings is to the Demand-cum-Show Cause Notice bearing No. 137 dated 27.06.2025 [hereinafter referred to as &#8216;Impugned SCN&#8217;], issued under Section 74 of the CGST Act.</div>
<div><b>2. </b>The Petitioner has also challenged the Audit Report No. 111/2025-2026 dated 29.04.2025 and has sought, inter alia, a direction to the Respondents to consider the reply dated 18.06.2025 submitted by the Petitioner to the audit objections. The Petitioner has further sought a direction that the amount of Rs.40,10,153/- deposited by it through Form GST DRC-03 on 25.03.2025 be not appropriated, as according to the Petitioner, the said amount was deposited under coercion.</div>
<div><i>FACTUAL MATRIX:</i></div>
<div><b>3. </b>In order to appreciate the controversy involved in the present Petition, the relevant facts, in brief, are required to be noticed.</div>
<div><b>4. </b>The Petitioner is a private limited company stated to be engaged in the business of distribution of medicines. The audit proceedings in question commenced with the issuance of a Notice of Audit in Form GST ADT-01 dated 06.09.2024. The said notice was received by the Petitioner on 09.09.2024. According to the Petitioner, the audit was initially stated to cover the period from 01.04.2018 to 31.03.2023.</div>
<div><b>5. </b>The Petitioner states that, pursuant to the aforesaid notice, various documents and information were furnished to the Respondents between November 2024 and January 2025. Further communications seeking information were received by the Petitioner on 19.01.2025, 26.02.2025 and 15.03.2025, to which the Petitioner claims to have responded by furnishing the information sought.</div>
<div><b>6. </b>Thereafter, an onsite audit was conducted at the premises of the Petitioner between 20.03.2025 and 25.03.2025. The Petitioner alleges that, during the course of the onsite audit, the audit team sought to extend the scope of the audit and also sought information pertaining to periods beyond those mentioned in the original audit notice.</div>
<div><b>7. </b>The principal grievance of the Petitioner arising from the onsite audit concerns a payment of Rs.40,10,153/- made through Form GST DRC-03 on 25.03.2025. According to the Petitioner, the said payment was not voluntary and was made under coercion exercised by the audit team. The Petitioner states that it had requested that a formal communication or audit memo setting out the alleged liability and the basis for the demand be furnished before any payment was made. According to the Petitioner, despite such request, it was required to make the aforesaid deposit.</div>
<div><b>8. </b>The Petitioner thereafter addressed a communication dated 29.03.2025 to the concerned authorities, specifically raising its grievance regarding the circumstances in which the aforesaid amount had been deposited. The Petitioner also stated that the payment ought not to be treated as a voluntary payment or as an admission of liability. The Petitioner thereafter claims to have met Respondent No.2 on 04.04.2025 and brought to his notice the alleged coercion as well as the other grievances concerning the conduct of the audit. According to the Petitioner, an Audit Memo bearing date 28.03.2025 was thereafter supplied to it on 04.04.2025, both through email and by post.</div>
<div><b>9. </b>The said Audit Memo required the Petitioner to deposit an amount of Rs.75,41,830/-, besides applicable interest and penalty. The Petitioner states that the Audit Memo did not contain adequate details or workings explaining the basis on which the alleged liability had been computed. The Petitioner accordingly addressed communications dated 09.04.2025 and 11.04.2025 seeking the basis and workings of the proposed liability and also raising objections to the manner in which the audit proceedings had been conducted. The Petitioner states that a further reminder was submitted on 25.04.2025.</div>
<div><b>10. </b>In the meantime, an Audit Report dated 29.04.2025 was issued. The Petitioner states that the amount of Rs.40,10,153/- which had already been deposited by it through Form GST DRC-03 was appropriated. The Petitioner further states that the detailed workings relied upon for arriving at the alleged liability were furnished to it only on 14.05.2025. According to the Petitioner, the supply of such material after issuance of the Audit Report deprived it of an effective opportunity to respond to the audit objections at the audit stage.</div>
<div><b>11. </b>Thereafter, the Respondent issued an intimation in Form GST DRC-01A dated 02.06.2025, intimating the Petitioner of the proposed liability and calling upon it to make payment, failing which proceedings under Section 74 of the CGST Act would be initiated. The Petitioner submitted a detailed reply dated 18.06.2025. The reply, according to the Petitioner, comprised detailed submissions against each of the audit objections and was accompanied by supporting documents. The Petitioner also requested an opportunity of personal hearing.</div>
<div><b>12. </b>In the said reply, the Petitioner disputed, inter alia, the invocation of Section 74 of the CGST Act, the limitation in respect of the liability pertaining to Financial Year 2017-18, the manner in which the audit had been conducted, the alleged appropriation of the amount deposited on 25.03.2025, and the computation of various components of the proposed tax liability.</div>
<div><b>13. </b>The Petitioner also furnished objection-wise submissions in respect of the various audit findings. According to the Petitioner, substantial portions of the proposed demand were either unsustainable on merits, already discharged, incorrectly computed or otherwise liable to be excluded. The Petitioner thereafter came to be served with the Impugned SCN dated 27.06.2025 under Section 74 of the CGST Act.</div>
<div><i>SUBMISSIONS ON BEHALF OF THE PARTIES:</i></div>
<div><b>14. </b>Learned counsel for the Petitioner has primarily relied upon Rule 101(4) of the Central Goods and Services Tax Rules, 2017 [hereinafter referred to as „CGST Rules&#8217;]. It was submitted that the said provision requires the proper officer to finalize the findings of the audit after due consideration of the reply furnished by the registered person.</div>
<div><b>15. </b>It was submitted that the expression &#8220;shall&#8221; occurring in the aforesaid provision makes it mandatory for the proper officer to consider the reply furnished by the assessee before finalizing the audit findings. According to learned counsel, the statutory requirement has not been complied with in the present case since the detailed reply submitted by the Petitioner has been dealt with in the Impugned SCN merely by describing it as &#8220;non-satisfactory&#8221;.</div>
<div><b>16. </b>Learned counsel has also drawn the attention of the Court to the various objections raised by the Petitioner in its reply, including the objection concerning limitation in respect of Financial Year 2017-18, the alleged non-voluntary nature of the payment of Rs.40,10,153/-, the computation of the proposed liability and the other audit objections.</div>
<div><i>ANALYSIS &amp; FINDINGS:</i></div>
<div><b>17. </b>This Court has considered the submissions advanced by learned counsel appearing for the Petitioner and has also examined the nature of the relief sought in the present proceedings.</div>
<div><b>18. </b>At the outset, it is necessary to notice the stage at which the Petitioner has approached this Court. The audit proceedings have culminated in an Audit Report dated 29.04.2025. Thereafter, the Respondents issued Form GST DRC-01A dated 02.06.2025 and, upon consideration of the matter at that stage, have proceeded to issue the Impugned SCN dated 27.06.2025 under Section 74 of the CGST Act.</div>
<div><b>19. </b>Thus, the statutory adjudicatory proceedings contemplated under the CGST Act have already been set in motion. The Impugned SCN calls upon the Petitioner to show cause against the proposed demand. The issuance of a show cause notice, by itself, does not amount to determination of the liability of the Petitioner. The allegations and proposals contained therein remain to be adjudicated upon by the competent authority in accordance with law.</div>
<div><b>20. </b>The distinction between an audit proceeding and the subsequent adjudicatory proceeding is material in the present case. The Audit Report constitutes the outcome of the audit process. However, once proceedings under Section 74 of the CGST Act have been initiated by issuance of a show cause notice, the Petitioner has an opportunity to place before the adjudicating authority all objections which it seeks to raise against the proposed demand.</div>
<div><b>21. </b>The Petitioner has, in fact, already prepared and placed on record a detailed response setting out its objections to the audit findings and the proposed liability. The objections raised by the Petitioner are not confined to the alleged non-consideration of its reply. The Petitioner has raised several issues on merits as well as issues relating to limitation, computation, jurisdiction, the manner of audit and the treatment of the amount deposited on 25.03.2025.</div>
<div><b>22. </b>In the present proceedings, however, this Court is not required to examine the correctness of each of those objections at this stage. The question before this Court is whether the issuance of the Impugned SCN warrants interference merely because the Petitioner contends that its reply to the audit proceedings was not dealt with adequately.</div>
<div><b>23. </b>Learned counsel for the Petitioner has specifically relied upon Rule 101(4) of the CGST Rules and has contended that the use of the expression &#8220;shall&#8221; therein makes consideration of the reply furnished by the registered person mandatory.</div>
<div><b>24. </b>There can be no dispute with the proposition that a statutory requirement which obliges the proper officer to consider the reply furnished by a registered person is required to be complied with. Equally, however, the question whether the reply furnished by the Petitioner has been considered, whether the consideration was adequate, and what effect is required to be given to the objections raised by the Petitioner are matters which can appropriately be examined in the course of the adjudicatory proceedings.</div>
<div><b>25. </b>In the present case, it cannot be said, at this stage, that the audit authorities have wholly ignored the existence of the reply furnished by the Petitioner. The impugned proceedings specifically refer to the reply dated 18.06.2025 and record the conclusion that the same was not satisfactory.</div>
<div><b>26. </b>The mere fact that the reply has been dealt with in one sentence cannot, by itself, result in this Court entering into an adjudication of the underlying tax liability or quashing the subsequent show cause notice. Whether the manner in which the reply has been dealt with satisfies the statutory requirement, and whether the objections raised by the Petitioner warrant acceptance, rejection or partial acceptance, are matters which can be examined by the competent Adjudicating Authority.</div>
<div><b>27. </b>The Petitioner would, therefore, be entitled to place before the Adjudicating Authority its complete reply and all the objections which it has raised in the present proceedings. This would include its objections concerning the audit process, the alleged failure to consider its reply at the audit stage, the alleged coercion in respect of the payment of Rs.40,10,153/-, the question of appropriation of the said amount, the alleged limitation in respect of Financial Year 2017-18, the computation of the proposed liability, as well as all other objections which may otherwise be available to the Petitioner in law.</div>
<div><b>28. </b>It is clarified that this Court has not examined the merits of any of the aforesaid objections. No opinion is being expressed as to whether the payment of Rs.40,10,153/- was voluntary or was made under coercion. Likewise, this Court has not examined the Petitioner&#8217;s contention regarding limitation, the alleged jurisdictional objection to the audit, the correctness of the computation of the proposed demand, or the validity of the audit findings. All such issues are left open for consideration by the competent authority in accordance with law.</div>
<div><b>29. </b>The Petitioner shall, therefore, be at liberty to place its objections before the Adjudicating Authority in response to the Impugned SCN. The Adjudicating Authority shall consider the objections raised by the Petitioner independently and in accordance with law. The fact that the present Court is relegating the Petitioner to the statutory adjudicatory mechanism shall not be construed as an expression of opinion by this Court on any of the substantive objections raised by the Petitioner.</div>
<div><b>30. </b>The Petitioner has also sought a direction concerning the amount of Rs.40,10,153/- deposited through Form GST DRC-03. The Petitioner contends that the amount was deposited under coercion and should not be appropriated. Since the question as to the nature and legal effect of the said payment is itself one of the issues raised by the Petitioner in relation to the proposed liability, the same can also be placed before and considered by the Adjudicating Authority in the course of the proceedings arising from the Impugned SCN.</div>
<div><b>31. </b>At this stage, therefore, this Court does not consider it appropriate to interdict the statutory adjudicatory process merely because the Petitioner disputes the manner in which its reply was dealt with at the preceding audit stage. The appropriate course would be to permit the statutory authority before whom the Section 74 proceedings are pending to examine the entire matter, including the objections raised by the Petitioner.</div>
<div><i>CONTEMPT PROCEEDINGS:</i></div>
<div><b>32. </b>It is noticed that, during the pendency of the present proceedings, an allegation was raised regarding violation of an interim order dated 27.07.2025, pursuant to which notice was issued to Respondent No.5 requiring his personal appearance and also calling upon him to show cause as to why contempt proceedings ought not to be initiated.</div>
<div><b>33. </b>Respondent No.5 has submitted his response to the said notice and has explained that the order dated 24.07.2025 was not within his notice when the notice requiring his personal appearance was issued.</div>
<div><b>34. </b>In view of the fact that the Petitioner is being relegated to the statutory remedy before the Adjudicating Authority and keeping in view the explanation furnished by Respondent No.5, this Court does not consider it appropriate to continue the contempt proceedings arising out of the aforesaid notice.</div>
<div><b>35. </b>Consequently, the contempt proceedings are closed.</div>
<div><i>CONCLUSION:</i></div>
<div><b>36. </b>For the reasons recorded above, no interference is warranted by this Court at the present stage with the Impugned SCN dated 27.06.2025. The Petitioner shall be at liberty to raise, before the Adjudicating Authority, all objections available to it in law, including those raised in the present Writ Petition and in its reply dated 18.06.2025.</div>
<div><b>37. </b>It is made clear that the observations contained in the present judgment are confined to the issue of entertainability of Writ Petition at the stage of the Impugned SCN. This Court has not expressed any opinion on the merits of the audit objections, the proposed tax liability, the question of limitation, the alleged coercion in respect of the payment made on 25.03.2025, the appropriation thereof, or any other substantive objection raised by the Petitioner. All such issues are left open for consideration by the competent authority in accordance with law.</div>
<div><b>38. </b>The Adjudicating Authority shall consider the objections raised by the Petitioner in accordance with law and independently on their own merits.</div>
</div>
</div>
</div>
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		<title>Addition Under Section 69A Unjustified When Bank Credit Source Is Proven And Uncorroborated Cash Receipts Unproven</title>
		<link>https://www.taxheal.com/and-makarand-vasant-mahadeokar-accountant-member-40.html</link>
		
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Ashwani Kumar]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Thu, 01 Oct 2026 05:29:06 +0000</pubDate>
				<category><![CDATA[Income Tax]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Central]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Deputy Commissioner]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[IN THE ITAT MUMBAI BENCH]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Income tax]]></category>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">https://www.taxheal.com/?p=141822</guid>

					<description><![CDATA[<p>Addition Under Section 69A Unjustified When Bank Credit Source Is Proven And Uncorroborated Cash Receipts Unproven Addition Under Section 69A Unjustified When Bank Credit Source Is Proven And Uncorroborated Cash Receipts Unproven Issue Whether an addition under Section 69A for unexplained money can be sustained for AY 2019-20 when a bank credit of Rs. 11… <span class="read-more"><a href="https://www.taxheal.com/and-makarand-vasant-mahadeokar-accountant-member-40.html">Read More &#187;</a></span></p>
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<h2 style="text-align: center;"><b data-path-to-node="0" data-index-in-node="0">Addition Under Section 69A Unjustified When Bank Credit Source Is Proven And Uncorroborated Cash Receipts Unproven</b></h2>
</div>
<div></div>
<div>Addition Under Section 69A Unjustified When Bank Credit Source Is Proven And Uncorroborated Cash Receipts Unproven</div>
<div id="model-response-message-contentr_afba379c87feb44e" class="markdown markdown-main-panel md-content enable-luminous-fast-follows enable-updated-hr-color tutor-markdown-rendering" dir="ltr" aria-busy="false" aria-live="polite">
<div><b data-path-to-node="1" data-index-in-node="0">Issue</b></div>
<ol start="1" data-path-to-node="2">
<li>
<div>Whether an addition under Section 69A for unexplained money can be sustained for AY 2019-20 when a bank credit of Rs. 11 lakh is fully explained as an advance received through banking channels from a identified entity during property negotiations.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>Whether an addition of Rs. 3.83 crore as unexplained cash under Section 69A for AY 2020-21 can be made based on an unsigned, disputed agreement to sell, third-party WhatsApp chats, and uncorroborated broker statements alleging cash payments.</div>
</li>
</ol>
<div><b data-path-to-node="3" data-index-in-node="0">Facts</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="4">
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="4,0,0" data-index-in-node="0">AY 2019-20:</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="4,0,1">
<li>
<div>Pursuant to a search in a connected case, a purported agreement to sell the assessee’s Noida property (recorded consideration of Rs. 4.50 crore with a recital of Rs. 1 crore by cheque) was recovered.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>The document was unsigned by the assessee and vendee, and the representative&#8217;s signature was disputed.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>Bank records reflected a Rs. 11 lakh credit in the assessee’s account from &#8220;Eight Petalled Lotus&#8221; (the vendee’s proprietary concern), which the vendee acknowledged paying as advance via cheque.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>The Assessing Officer treated the Rs. 11 lakh credited to the assessee&#8217;s account as unexplained money under Section 69A.</div>
</li>
</ul>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="4,1,0" data-index-in-node="0">AY 2020-21:</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="4,1,1">
<li>
<div>Relying on the same incomplete agreement, WhatsApp chats between the broker and the proposed purchaser’s husband, and a broker statement alleging cash transfers through <i data-path-to-node="4,1,1,0,0" data-index-in-node="169">angadias</i>, the Assessing Officer alleged the actual transaction value was Rs. 7.50 crore.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>The Assessing Officer treated Rs. 3.83 crore as undisclosed cash consideration received during the year and added it under Section 69A.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>The vendee and her husband denied making any cash payments, denied issuing a Rs. 1 crore cheque, and affirmed that the deal was never concluded.</div>
</li>
</ul>
</li>
</ul>
<div><b data-path-to-node="5" data-index-in-node="0">Decision</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="6">
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="6,0,0" data-index-in-node="0">Regarding AY 2019-20 (Rs. 11 Lakh Credit):</b> Held, yes. Since the nature and source of the Rs. 11 lakh credit were clearly established as advance money received through banking channels from an identified concern, the addition under Section 69A was deleted.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="6,1,0" data-index-in-node="0">Regarding AY 2020-21 (Rs. 3.83 Crore Alleged Cash):</b> Held, yes. The unsigned agreement, third-party WhatsApp chats, and uncorroborated broker statements failed to establish with sufficient reliability that the assessee actually received or owned Rs. 3.83 crore in cash; thus, the addition under Section 69A was deleted.</div>
</li>
</ul>
<div><b data-path-to-node="7" data-index-in-node="0">Key Takeaways</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="8">
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="8,0,0" data-index-in-node="0">Banking Channel Credits Are Not Unexplained:</b> Where a sum credited to an assessee&#8217;s bank account is supported by verifiable banking entries and an identified source, Section 69A cannot be invoked.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="8,1,0" data-index-in-node="0">Uncorroborated Loose Evidence Inadmissible for Heavy Additions:</b> Unsigned draft agreements, third-party WhatsApp exchanges, and unverified broker statements do not constitute conclusive or reliable evidence to sustain additions for alleged cash payments without corroborative proof of actual receipt/possession by the assessee.</div>
</li>
</ul>
<div>
<div id="111070000000000011" style="text-align: center;">IN THE ITAT MUMBAI BENCH &#8216;F&#8217;</div>
<div id="" style="text-align: center;">Smt. Jaya Amitabh Bachchan</div>
<div style="text-align: center;">v.</div>
<div id="" style="text-align: center;">Deputy Commissioner of Income-tax, Central</div>
<div id="dbs_judge" style="text-align: center;"><span id="111170000000003970">Amit Shukla</span>, Judicial Member<br />
and <span id="111170000000128139">MAKARAND VASANT MAHADEOKAR</span>, Accountant Member</div>
<div style="text-align: center;">IT Appeal No. 283 (Mum.) of 2026<br />
IT(SS)A No. 284 (Mum.) of 2026<br />
[Assessment years 2020-21]</div>
<div style="text-align: center;">SEPTEMBER  28, 2026</div>
</div>
</div>
<div></div>
<div>
<div id="digest">
<div><b>N.K. Lal</b> <i>for the Appellant. </i><b>Nishant Samaiya</b>, CIT DR<i> for the Respondent.</i></div>
</div>
<div id="caseOrder">
<div>
<div>ORDER</div>
<div></div>
<div><b>Amit Shukla, Judicial Member. </b>&#8211; These two appeals, preferred by the assessee, Smt. Jaya Amitabh Bachchan, for Assessment Years 2019–20 and 2020– 21, arise from separate assessment orders but concern the same alleged transaction relating to Plot No. B-130, Sector 44, Noida. The additions made in both years rest substantially upon a document described as an agreement to sell, statements recorded during the investigation and WhatsApp communications recovered from the mobile phone of Shri Amit Chauhan, stated to be the broker. Since the material and the principal controversy are common, the appeals were heard together and are being disposed of by this common order. The appeal for A.Y. 2019–20 is ITA No. 283/Mum/2026 and the appeal for A.Y. 2020–21 is IT(SS)A No. 284/Mum/2026. The reference to Appeal Nos. 383 and 384 in the written submission appears to be a typographical error.</div>
<div><b>2. </b>The relevant background is that a search under section 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (&#8220;the Act&#8221;) was conducted on 15 January 2021 in the case of Bloomstrende Buildwell Pvt. Ltd. and others. The premises of Shri Amit Chauhan, a property broker, were also covered. Among the documents stated to have been found there was an &#8220;Agreement to Sell&#8221; concerning the assessee&#8217;s property at B-130, Sector 44, Noida. The document is dated 25 November 2019 and purports to record a sale by the assessee to Smt. Mamta Wadhwa for a total consideration of ₹4.50 crore. It recites that ₹1 crore had been received by cheque No. 044495 dated 12 August 2019 and that the balance of ₹3.50 crore was payable by 30 November 2019. The document bears a signature in the vendor&#8217;s execution space attributed to Shri Rajesh Yadav, stated to have acted for the assessee; it does not bear the assessee&#8217;s personal signature, and the vendee&#8217;s execution space is blank. The assessee disputes the signature attributed to Shri Yadav and his authority to execute the document. Smt. Wadhwa, when shown the document, also disputed its contents, including the description of her husband, her address and company name, and the recital that ₹1 crore had been paid. The document&#8217;s recital of a ₹1 crore cheque is at variance with the bank material obtained by the Assessing Officer, which identifies a credit of ₹11 lakh in the assessee&#8217;s account.</div>
<div><b>3. </b>The statements of Smt. Mamta Wadhwa and her husband, Shri Manish Wadhwa, were recorded on 9 March 2021 by the Investigation Wing. Smt. Wadhwa stated that Shri Amit Chauhan had introduced the property to her husband and that she, her husband and Shri Chauhan had met Shri Amitabh Bachchan and Shri Rajesh Yadav at the latter&#8217;s office in Mumbai. She stated that she had handed over a cheque of ₹11 lakh to Shri Amitabh Bachchan towards the proposed purchase. She further stated that the deal did not work out, that the money had not been returned to her, and that she and her husband had not received any agreement to sell. When asked to describe how the transaction had been brokered, she stated that she did not know the total consideration, that no agreement to sell had been made, and that the proposed deal had been delayed and never happened. When confronted with Shri Chauhan&#8217;s statement referring to a consideration of ₹7.50 crore and cash payment, she denied any cash payment and maintained that the only amount paid was ₹11 lakh by cheque. She also stated that she had not issued any cheque beyond ₹11 lakh for this particular transaction. Thus, her statement accepts the cheque payment and the existence of negotiations, but disputes the execution of the agreement, the completion of the transaction and the alleged cash component.</div>
<div><b>4. </b>Shri Manish Wadhwa&#8217;s statement contains both an acknowledgment of the proposed transaction and responses concerning the electronic communications relied upon by the Assessing Officer. He stated that the deal concerning the Noida property had been brokered by Shri Chauhan and confirmed that ₹11 lakh had been paid by cheque from his wife&#8217;s account. When confronted with the WhatsApp communications, he acknowledged that the chats were between him and Shri Chauhan, but gave different explanations for different messages. In relation to the communication dated 10 December 2019 referring to &#8220;3.5&#8221; being given or transferred to Mumbai, he described the figure as an estimate or calculation. When confronted with another communication dated 2 December 2020, which the Assessing Officer read as referring to a figure of approximately ₹3.73 crore or ₹3.80 crore for the Noida property, he again described the figure as a future estimate. He also stated during the questioning that he had not paid any cash. However, when shown the separate WhatsApp communication dated 28 October 2020, which the Assessing Officer construed as giving a bifurcation of ₹3.83 crore in cash and ₹11 lakh by cheque for the Noida property, Shri Wadhwa acknowledged that the message was his but stated that he had no explanation for it at that time. His responses, therefore, are not uniform: he expressly denied cash payment and described some figures as estimates, but acknowledged authorship of the message upon which the Assessing Officer principally relied for the figure of ₹3.83 crore.</div>
<div><b>5. </b>Shri Amit Chauhan&#8217;s statement also refers to the transaction, but the figures and manner of payment attributed to him differ from those appearing in the purported agreement and from the account given by the proposed purchasers. When confronted with the agreement, he stated that the actual sale consideration was ₹7.50 crore and not ₹4.50 crore, and that ₹3.50 crore had been paid in cash; he further stated that the ₹1 crore shown in the agreement as paid by cheque had, in fact, been paid in cash. In response to another question concerning the transaction, he referred to payment of ₹11 lakh by cheque to Shri Amitabh Bachchan in Mumbai, in the presence of Shri Rajesh Yadav, and stated that cash of approximately ₹3 crore to ₹3.50 crore had been sent from Delhi to Mumbai through angadias. His account thus attributes a substantial cash component to the proposed deal, but the total consideration and payment particulars do not correspond consistently with the agreement, the bank evidence or the statements of Smt. Wadhwa and Shri Manish Wadhwa. The assessment order records that Smt. Wadhwa and Shri Manish Wadhwa had sought to cross-examine Shri Chauhan; summons dated 28 June 2021 were issued fixing 2 July 2021 for that purpose, but neither attended. The assessment order further records that an opportunity to cross-examine Shri Chauhan was also afforded to Shri Rajesh Yadav, who did not avail himself of it. These circumstances form part of the evidentiary record and are noticed here without expressing any conclusion on their effect.</div>
<div><b>6. </b>The Assessing Officer also relied upon the WhatsApp communications between Shri Manish Wadhwa and Shri Chauhan. The communications referred to in the assessment order include the message of 10 December 2019 concerning an amount of ₹3.50 crore to be transferred to Mumbai; the message dated 2 December 2020 containing figures which the Assessing Officer read as approximately ₹3.73 crore or ₹3.80 crore for the property; and the message dated 28 October 2020, which the Assessing Officer read as setting out ₹3.83 crore in cash and ₹11 lakh by cheque. The communication of 10 December 2019 post-dates the 30 November 2019 deadline mentioned in the purported agreement for payment of the balance consideration. Shri Wadhwa described the figures in the first two communications as estimates or future calculations. In relation to the 28 October 2020 communication, he acknowledged that the message was his but did not then explain it. The Assessing Officer treated that message as corroborating the alleged cash payment and relied upon it, together with Shri Chauhan&#8217;s statement, to compute the alleged cash consideration at ₹3.83 crore. The material thus includes both the Assessing Officer&#8217;s inference of actual payment and the explanations or denials given by the persons whose statements and messages were relied upon.</div>
<div><b>7. </b>For A.Y. 2019–20, the Assessing Officer obtained information from Bank of India and found a credit of ₹11 lakh in the assessee&#8217;s account on 27 February 2019. The bank identified the cheque as cheque No. 0267 drawn by Eight Petalled Lotus, the proprietary concern of Smt. Mamta Wadhwa. This credit preceded the purported agreement dated 25 November 2019 by about nine months; the agreement, in turn, refers to a different payment of ₹1 crore by cheque dated 12 August 2019. The Assessing Officer treated the ₹11 lakh credit as unexplained money under section 69A and added it to the assessee&#8217;s returned income. The assessee&#8217;s case in appeal is that the cheque was the advance paid during negotiations for the proposed transfer, that its source was identified, and that it was disclosed in her records and return. For A.Y. 2020–21, the Assessing Officer treated ₹3.83 crore as cash consideration allegedly received during the relevant previous year and added it under section 69A. The assessment order records that the ₹11 lakh cheque had already been considered in A.Y. 2019–20 and that the addition for the succeeding year was confined to the alleged cash component. The amounts brought to tax—₹11 lakh and ₹3.83 crore, aggregating to ₹3.94 crore—do not correspond to the agreement&#8217;s stated consideration of ₹4.50 crore or to the total consideration of ₹7.50 crore stated by Shri Chauhan.</div>
<div><b>8. </b>The assessee&#8217;s appeals before the learned Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) were dismissed by orders dated 12 December 2025. For A.Y. 2019–20, the learned CIT(A) treated the cheque as part of the alleged larger transaction and sustained the addition of ₹11 lakh under section 69A. The appellate order records the assessee&#8217;s explanation that the amount was an advance in the course of negotiations and refers to its having been returned in April 2023. The assessee&#8217;s present submission, however, states that the amount was retained as an advance pending adjustment against the cost of acquisition when the property was ultimately sold; Smt. Wadhwa&#8217;s statement is that the amount had not been returned to her. For A.Y. 2020–21, the learned CIT(A) held that the purported agreement, the statements and the WhatsApp material established the alleged cash receipt, and considered the later registered sale to Smt. Varsha Singh irrelevant to the transaction alleged to have taken place with Smt. Wadhwa. The assessee has challenged both appellate orders, maintaining that the property was never sold to Smt. Wadhwa and relying on the subsequent registered sale to Smt. Varsha Singh in April 2023.</div>
<div><b>9. </b>Before us, the learned counsel submitted that the agreement does not establish a concluded sale or the receipt of the consideration recited in it: the assessee did not sign it; the vendee did not sign it; the signature attributed to the assessee&#8217;s representative is disputed; and the agreement&#8217;s ₹1 crore cheque recital is inconsistent with the only bank credit identified, namely ₹11 lakh. It was submitted that Smt. Wadhwa accepted only the ₹11 lakh cheque and denied any cash payment, while Shri Manish Wadhwa also stated that no cash had been paid and described certain amounts in the chats as estimates. The learned counsel further submitted that the ₹11 lakh was an advance received in negotiations and its treatment was governed by section 51 when the property was later transferred; he also relied on the property&#8217;s subsequent sale to Smt. Varsha Singh. The learned counsel contended that the learned CIT(A) had not properly dealt with the statements, the discrepancies in the agreement and payment figures, the subsequent sale or the assessee&#8217;s plea under section 51. The learned Departmental Representative supported the orders below, relying on Shri Chauhan&#8217;s statement, the WhatsApp message dated 28 October 2020 and the fact that the buyer and her husband did not attend the offered cross-examination. The assessee has also raised objections concerning the notices under sections 143(2) and 153C, the opportunity and material furnished during assessment, and the invocation of section 69A. The merits issue is whether the evidence establishes, separately for each assessment year, that the assessee received or owned the amount brought to tax; the statements, agreement and electronic material must accordingly be considered together, including the portions that support and those that contradict the respective accounts.</div>
<div><b>10. </b>We have considered the material on record and the rival submissions. Both additions have been made under section 69A of the Act. The question is whether the assessee was found to be the owner of the respective sums in the relevant previous years and whether their nature and source remained unexplained. The fact that negotiations for the Noida property took place is not in dispute. What remains to be determined is whether those negotiations resulted in an agreement with Smt. Mamta Wadhwa and, in particular, whether the assessee received ₹3.83 crore in cash during the previous year relevant to A.Y. 2020–21.</div>
<div><b>11. </b>The purported agreement does not, by itself, establish a concluded transaction or the payments attributed to it. The assessee did not sign it personally; the vendee&#8217;s signature space is blank; and the signature appearing in the vendor&#8217;s space, attributed to Shri Rajesh Yadav, is disputed. The record does not establish that the agreement was mutually executed or otherwise reliably accepted by the Wadhwas. Its payment recital is also inconsistent with the bank material: the agreement refers to ₹1 crore paid by cheque, whereas the bank records identify a credit of ₹11 lakh from Eight Petalled Lotus. The agreement records total consideration of ₹4.50 crore, while Shri Chauhan referred to ₹7.50 crore and gave varying accounts of the cash component. The Assessing Officer, in turn, assessed ₹11 lakh in A.Y. 2019–20 and ₹3.83 crore in A.Y. 2020–21, aggregating to ₹3.94 crore. These discrepancies concern the consideration and the manner of payment themselves. The agreement is relevant material, but it does not, without reliable corroboration, establish the precise amounts assessed.</div>
<div><b>12. </b>The addition of ₹11 lakh for A.Y. 2019–20 cannot be sustained under section 69A. The Assessing Officer&#8217;s own inquiry established that the amount was received by cheque No. 0267 from Eight Petalled Lotus, the proprietary concern of Smt. Wadhwa. She accepted payment of ₹11 lakh as an advance towards the proposed purchase, and Shri Manish Wadhwa confirmed that the cheque was paid from his wife&#8217;s account. The payer, banking source and nature of the credit as an advance are thus established. The assessee&#8217;s case is that the advance was disclosed and retained for adjustment against the cost of acquisition when the property was later transferred. Section 51 provides for the treatment, in computing the cost of acquisition, of advance money received and retained during negotiations for transfer of a capital asset. The appellate order and the statements contain differing accounts as to whether the amount was later returned or retained; that question need not be determined in deciding whether the original cheque credit was unexplained. Its source and nature are established, and its appropriate subsequent treatment, if any, falls to be considered under the applicable provisions in the relevant year. The addition under section 69A is therefore deleted.</div>
<div><b>13. </b>The addition of ₹3.83 crore for A.Y. 2020–21 rests principally on Shri Chauhan&#8217;s statement and the WhatsApp communications between him and Shri Manish Wadhwa. We have not overlooked the communication dated 28 October 2020. Shri Wadhwa acknowledged that it was his message but, when confronted with the Assessing Officer&#8217;s reading of it as showing ₹3.83 crore in cash and ₹11 lakh by cheque, stated that he had no explanation for the message at that time. This is an adverse circumstance and has been weighed. His acknowledgment establishes authorship of the message and his failure then to explain it; it does not, by itself, establish that the cash recorded in it was actually paid to the assessee, or that it was paid during the previous year relevant to A.Y. 2020–21. Shri Wadhwa also expressly stated that he had not paid cash and described other figures in the communications as estimates or future calculations. Smt. Wadhwa consistently stated that only ₹11 lakh was paid and denied any cash payment.</div>
<div><b>14. </b>The timing of the electronic material is material. The previous year relevant to A.Y. 2020–21 ended on 31 March 2020. The communications dated 28 October 2020 and 2 December 2020 fall in the following previous year. Though they may bear upon the parties&#8217; later discussions or understanding of the proposed transaction, they do not, without evidence establishing when the cash was actually paid, fix receipt of ₹3.83 crore in the previous year under appeal. The communication dated 10 December 2019 falls within the relevant previous year, but it post-dates the 30 November 2019 deadline stated in the purported agreement for payment of the balance consideration and refers to ₹3.50 crore being given or transferred to Mumbai. Shri Wadhwa described the figure as an estimate or calculation. The assessment order does not identify the date or dates of actual cash delivery during FY 2019–20.</div>
<div><b>15. </b>Shri Chauhan&#8217;s statement also attributes a substantial cash component to the proposed transaction, and we have considered it with the electronic material. When confronted with the agreement, he referred to a total consideration of ₹7.50 crore, ₹3.50 crore in cash, and stated that the ₹1 crore shown in the agreement as paid by cheque had instead been paid in cash. In another answer, he referred to an ₹11 lakh cheque and cash of approximately ₹3 crore to ₹3.50 crore, allegedly sent from Delhi to Mumbai through angadias. These accounts do not correspond consistently with the agreement, the bank evidence or the precise ₹3.83 crore assessed by the Assessing Officer. The assessment order does not identify the angadias, the dates or instalments of the alleged cash delivery, or other material tracing the cash to the assessee. The order also treats the non-attendance of Smt. Wadhwa and Shri Manish Wadhwa at the offered cross-examination as establishing the correctness of Shri Chauhan&#8217;s account. Their failure to attend is a relevant circumstance and weighs against their denials. The assessment order also records that the assessee&#8217;s representative did not avail himself of the opportunity to cross-examine Shri Chauhan. These circumstances have been taken into account; nevertheless, non-attendance does not, by itself, establish the amount, recipient or year of the alleged payment. The statement must still be assessed with the other material, and the inconsistencies and absence of particulars do not establish that ₹3.83 crore was delivered to the assessee during FY 2019–20.</div>
<div><b>16. </b>The registered sale of the property to Smt. Varsha Singh in April 2023 also forms part of the record. We do not treat that subsequent sale, standing alone, as proof that no money could have been paid during earlier negotiations; a proposed transaction may fail even after a payment or advance. It does, however, support the assessee&#8217;s case that the property was not conveyed to Smt. Wadhwa and remained available for transfer to another purchaser. Considered with the absence of a mutually executed or otherwise reliably established agreement with the Wadhwas, the discrepancy between the agreement&#8217;s ₹1 crore cheque recital and the established ₹11 lakh credit, the statements of the proposed purchasers, and the inconsistent figures and timing in Shri Chauhan&#8217;s account and the electronic material, the later sale reinforces the conclusion that the alleged receipt of ₹3.83 crore in FY 2019–20 has not been established.</div>
<div><b>17. </b>On an overall appraisal, the source and nature of the ₹11 lakh cheque credit are established, and the amount cannot be treated as unexplained money under section 69A. As regards A.Y. 2020–21, the material does not establish with sufficient reliability that the assessee received or owned ₹3.83 crore in cash during the relevant previous year. The WhatsApp message and Shri Chauhan&#8217;s statement are relevant and have been weighed, but they do not establish the date of actual payment or reliably connect the precise amount assessed to receipt by the assessee in FY 2019–20. The additions of ₹11 lakh for A.Y. 2019–20 and ₹3.83 crore for A.Y. 2020–21 are accordingly deleted.</div>
<div><b>18. </b>In view of our decision on the merits, it is unnecessary to adjudicate the objections concerning notices under sections 143(2) and 153C or the other procedural grounds. Those grounds are left open and treated as academic; no finding on their merits is expressed. The appeals are allowed.</div>
<div><b>19. </b>In the result, both the appeals of the assessee are allowed.</div>
</div>
</div>
</div>
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		<title>Deficiency Memos Rejecting Refund Applications at Acknowledgment Stage Without Examining Contents or Merits Are Legally Unsustainable</title>
		<link>https://www.taxheal.com/ziyad-rahman-a-a-j-49.html</link>
		
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Ashwani Kumar]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Tue, 15 Sep 2026 08:16:46 +0000</pubDate>
				<category><![CDATA[GST]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[ABE Service (P.) Ltd.]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Deputy Commissioner]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[HIGH COURT OF KERALA]]></category>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">https://www.taxheal.com/?p=140780</guid>

					<description><![CDATA[<p>Deficiency Memos Rejecting Refund Applications at Acknowledgment Stage Without Examining Contents or Merits Are Legally Unsustainable Issue Whether a Proper Officer can reject a refund application at the acknowledgment stage under Rule 90(2) by issuing deficiency memos based on category selection, lack of e-BRC/FIRC when remittance advice was submitted, and bar of limitation, without adjudicating… <span class="read-more"><a href="https://www.taxheal.com/ziyad-rahman-a-a-j-49.html">Read More &#187;</a></span></p>
]]></description>
										<content:encoded><![CDATA[<div id="model-response-message-contentr_30a0392da9274a61" class="markdown markdown-main-panel md-content enable-luminous-fast-follows enable-updated-hr-color tutor-markdown-rendering" dir="ltr" aria-busy="false" aria-live="polite">
<div><strong>Deficiency Memos Rejecting Refund Applications at Acknowledgment Stage Without Examining Contents or Merits Are Legally Unsustainable</strong></div>
<div><b data-path-to-node="1" data-index-in-node="0">Issue</b></div>
<div>Whether a Proper Officer can reject a refund application at the acknowledgment stage under Rule 90(2) by issuing deficiency memos based on category selection, lack of e-BRC/FIRC when remittance advice was submitted, and bar of limitation, without adjudicating the claim on merits.</div>
<div><b data-path-to-node="2" data-index-in-node="0">Facts</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="3">
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="3,0,0" data-index-in-node="0">Assessee &amp; Claim:</b> The petitioner, an exporter of educational consultancy services, filed refund applications for CGST and SGST paid under the reverse charge mechanism (RCM) on supplies to foreign educational establishments.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="3,1,0" data-index-in-node="0">Portal Limitation &amp; Category:</b> Due to the absence of a specific option for RCM CGST refunds on the common portal, the petitioner selected the category &#8220;Any other.&#8221;</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="3,2,0" data-index-in-node="0">Issuance of Deficiency Memos:</b> The Proper Officer issued deficiency memos under Rule 90(3), citing:</div>
<ul data-path-to-node="3,2,1">
<li>
<div>Incorrect category selection.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>Non-furnishing of statutory statements under Rule 89 and Circular No. 125/44/2019.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>Submission of &#8220;Remittance Advice&#8221; (titled as &#8220;Advice of Foreign Inward Remittance&#8221; by the bank) instead of a Bank Realisation Certificate (e-BRC) or FIRC under Rule 89(2)(c).</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>Bar of limitation.</div>
</li>
</ul>
</li>
</ul>
<div><b data-path-to-node="4" data-index-in-node="0">Decision</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="5">
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="5,0,0" data-index-in-node="0">Limited Scope of Rule 90(2):</b> Scrutiny at the acknowledgment stage under Rule 90(2) is strictly confined to verifying the completeness of the application vis-à-vis Rule 89 requirements, not to assessing the acceptability or evidentiary merit of documents.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="5,1,0" data-index-in-node="0">Category Selection &amp; Statements:</b> Category selection issues lay outside Rule 90(2) due to portal limitations. Citing non-furnishing of statements under Circular 125/44/2019 was premature, as the claim pertained to RCM tax paid, not unutilized ITC.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="5,2,0" data-index-in-node="0">Rejection of Remittance Advice Unjustified:</b> The officer cannot reject documents purely based on their title without examining their contents, especially when the Remittance Advice evidenced the genuineness and receipt of foreign inward remittance.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="5,3,0" data-index-in-node="0">Limitation Requires Adjudication:</b> The issue of limitation requires proper adjudication on merits after affording a hearing and cannot be used to block applications at the acknowledgment stage.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="5,4,0" data-index-in-node="0">Verdict:</b> The deficiency memos were held legally unsustainable and quashed. The authority was directed to entertain the refund applications and consider them on merits. <i data-path-to-node="5,4,0" data-index-in-node="168">(In favour of assessee)</i></div>
</li>
</ul>
<div><b data-path-to-node="6" data-index-in-node="0">Key Takeaways</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="7">
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="7,0,0" data-index-in-node="0">Scrutiny vs. Merits Adjudication:</b> Rule 90(2) deficiency memos are meant only for checking formal completeness, not for evaluating document acceptability or deciding substantive merits.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="7,1,0" data-index-in-node="0">Substance Over Form for Inward Remittances:</b> Tax authorities cannot reject foreign exchange realization evidence (like Remittance Advice) solely due to its nomenclature if the document substantively proves inward remittance.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="7,2,0" data-index-in-node="0">Portal Deficiencies Cannot Prejudice Taxpayers:</b> Mismatches or workarounds (such as selecting &#8220;Any other&#8221;) caused by limitations on the GST portal cannot be used by revenue officers as a ground for issuing deficiency memos.</div>
</li>
</ul>
<div>
<div id="111070000000000010" style="text-align: center;">HIGH COURT OF <span class="researchdochighlight">KERALA</span></div>
<div id="" style="text-align: center;">ABE Service (P.) Ltd.</div>
<div style="text-align: center;">v.</div>
<div id="" style="text-align: center;">Deputy Commissioner</div>
<div id="dbs_judge" style="text-align: center;"><span id="111170000000108878">ZIYAD RAHMAN A.A.</span>, J.</div>
<div style="text-align: center;">WP (C) NO. 21135 OF <span class="researchdochighlight">2026</span></div>
<div style="text-align: center;">JULY  10, <span class="researchdochighlight">2026</span></div>
</div>
</div>
<div></div>
<div>
<div id="digest">
<div><b>Karthik S. Nair</b> and <b>R. Raghavan</b>, Advs.<i> for the Petitioner. </i><b>Gireesh G</b>, Sr. G.P<i> for the Respondent.</i></div>
</div>
<div id="caseOrder">
<div>
<div>JUDGMENT</div>
<div></div>
<div><b>1. </b>All these writ petitions are submitted by the same petitioner, being aggrieved by the deficiency memo as evidenced by Ext.P2 in all cases, in respect of the applications submitted by the petitioner for refund of GST paid on Educational consultancy services provided to the foreign educational establishments. According to the petitioner, the reasons mentioned in Ext.P2 Deficiency memo, are matters which should not have been formed the basis of Deficiency memo and instead, those are matters to be considered while the refund applications are considered on merits.</div>
<div><b>2. </b>In WP (C) No.21135/<span class="researchdochighlight">2026</span>, the deficiencies mentioned in the Deficiency memo are as follows:</div>
<div>&#8220;Remarks: 1. Incorrect Category &#8220;Any Other&#8221; instead of &#8220;Refund of IGST paid on Zero-rated supply&#8221;.</div>
<div>2. Missing Statutory Statements: Under Rule 89 and Circular 125/44/2019, Statement 3 (linking invoices to remittances) and Annexure-B are mandatory. &#8220;invoice list&#8221; is insufficient.</div>
<div>3. Invalid Realization Proof: A &#8220;Remittance Advice&#8221; is not a substitute for a Bank Realisation Certificate (e-BRC) or FIRC, which is legal requirement for export of services under Rule 89(2)(<i>c</i>).</div>
<div>4.Claim barred by time limitation.&#8221;</div>
<div><b>3. </b>According to the petitioner, as far as the incorrect category referred to in this case is concerned, the same could not have been a subject matter of deficiency memo, as the same is something which ought to be considered at the time when the application is considered on merits. According to the petitioner, he rendered the services of export of services and paid CGST, in respect of the transaction which is sought to be refunded. According to the petitioner, since the petitioner is claiming refund of CGST, the only option that is available in the portal while uploading the refund application is, to include it under the category of &#8220;Any other&#8221; and other options are not provided. According to the petitioner, as far as the Circular 125/44/2019 referred to in the deficiency memo is concerned, the same is applicable only in respect of refund of unutilised portion of input tax credit, and it cannot be made applicable to the petitioner, which is seeking refund of the CGST and SGST paid under reverse mechanism. Thus, it is pointed out that, it is impossible for the petitioner to comply with the said requirement and therefore, denial of consideration of refund application on such impossible ground is illegal.</div>
<div><b>4. </b>Similarly, with regard to the insistence for Bank Realisation Certificate or FIRC by rejecting the remittance advice uploaded by the petitioner along with the refund application, it is the submission of the learned counsel for the petitioner that, although the contents of such certificates satisfy the requirement of BRC, unfortunately the same was titled by the bank as the Advice of Foreign Inward Remittance. Therefore, that by itself cannot be a reason, to deny the opportunity to get the refund application considered.</div>
<div><b>5. </b>Thus it is pointed out that, the deficiencies pointed out in Ext.P2 cannot be sustained. Another deficiency is that, the claim is barred by limitation. According to the petitioner the same is also a matter which ought to have been considered by the authority while considering the application on merits after hearing the petitioner and considering the explanation the petitioner has to offer in respect of the same.</div>
<div><b>6. </b>Heard learned counsel for the petitioner and learned a Government Pleader for the respondents. After carefully going through the records, I find merits in the submission made by the learned counsel for the petitioner. Evidently, the deficiency memos which are produced as Ext.P2 in all theses cases were issued invoking the powers under Rule 90 of CGST Rules, 2017 particularly sub-rule (3) thereof. The Rules 90 reads as follows:</div>
<div>&#8220;Rule 90. Acknowledgment.-(1) Where the application relates to a claim for refund from the electronic cash ledger, an acknowledgment in FORM GST RFD-02 shall be made available to the applicant through the common portal electronically, clearly indicating the date of filing of the claim for refund and the time period specified in sub-section (7) of section 54 shall be counted from such date of filing. (2) The application for refund, other than claim for refund from electronic cash ledger, shall be forwarded to the proper officer who shall, within a period of fifteen days of filing of the said application, scrutinize the application for its completeness and where the application is found to be complete in terms of sub-rules (2), (3) and (4) of rule 89, an acknowledgment in FORM GST RFD-02 shall be made available to the applicant through the common portal electronically, clearly indicating the date of filing of the claim for refund and the time period specified in sub-section (7) of section 54 shall be counted from such date of filing. (3) Where any deficiencies are noticed, the proper officer shall communicate the deficiencies to the applicant in FORM GST RFD-03 through the common portal electronically, requiring him to file a fresh refund application after rectification of such deficiencies.</div>
<div>Provided that the time period, from the date of filing of the refund claim in FORM GST RFD-01 till the date of communication of the deficiencies in FORMGST RFD-03 by the proper officer, shall be excluded from the period of two years as specified under sub-section (1) of Section 54, in respect of any such fresh refund claim filed by the applicant after rectification of the deficiencies.</div>
<div>(4) Where deficiencies have been communicated in FORM GST RFD-03 under the State Goods and Service Tax Rules, 2017, the same shall also deemed to have been communicated under this rule along with the deficiencies communicated under sub-rule (3).</div>
<div>(5) The applicant may, at any time before issuance of provisional refund sanction order in FORM GST RFD-04 or final refund sanction order in FORM GST RFD-06 or payment order in FORM GST RFD-05 or refund withhold order in FORM GST RFD-07 or notice in FORM GST RFD-08, in respect of any refund application filed in FORM GST RFD-01 , withdraw the said application for refund by filing an application in FORM GST RFD-01W.</div>
<div>(6) On submission of application for withdrawal of refund in FORM GST RFD-01W , any amount debited by the applicant from electronic credit ledger or electronic cash ledger, as the case may be, while filing application for refund in FORM GST RFD-01, shall be credited back to the ledger from which such debit was made.&#8221;</div>
<div><b>7. </b>As per the said provision, the authority concerned has to scrutinize the application for its completeness and where the application is found to be complete in terms of sub-rules (2), (3) and (4) of Rule 89, an acknowledgment in Form GST, RFD-02 shall be made available. Sub-rule (3) of Rule 90 provides that, where any deficiencies are noted, the proper officer shall communicate the deficiencies to the applicant in Form GST RFD-03 through the common portal, electronically, requiring the petitioner to file a fresh refund application after rectification of such deficiencies. From sub-rule (2) it is evident that, the scope of scrutiny contemplated as per sub-rule (2) of Rule 90, is only to examine the completeness of the application, which would mean that, the application will have to be scrutinized to find out whether, it satisfies the requirement of sub-rules (2), (3), and (4) of Rule 89. The question whether the documents produced are acceptable or not, is a matter which is beyond the scope of such scrutiny and the same has to be considered at the time when it is considered on merits after giving the petitioner an opportunity for being heard.</div>
<div><b>8. </b>In this case, going by the nature of the contentions raised by the petitioner which are referred to above, apparently the same are beyond the scope of scrutiny contemplated under sub-rule (2) of Rule 90 of the CGST rules. This is because, as far as the disputes regarding the categories of the services rendered, the petitioner has already highlighted the difficulty, i.e., the lack of option available in the portal. Moreover, question of category is not something which is specifically referred to in sub-rule (2) of Rule 90, and therefore, that ground by itself cannot be reason, to issue a deficiency memo. There may be cases where, there could be overlapping in respect of the activities and confusion may arise with regard to the actual category in which the relevant service or supply needs to be included. In such cases, the matter will have to be determined on merits after examining the nature of the transactions, and in such cases if the applications itself is rejected, without even entertaining the application by issuing a deficiency memo, the opportunity to contest the said issue would be denied to the applicant concerned.</div>
<div><b>9. </b>Therefore, it is indeed a matter, that could be considered on merits and not at the stage when application is submitted and as part of conducting a scrutiny under Rule 90(2). When it comes to the question of the statutory statements in terms of Circular 125/44/2019, the petitioner had already explained that, it is not seeking refund of the unutilised portion of input tax credit, but he is seeking refund of the tax paid under reverse charge mechanism therefore, it is not applicable. When it comes to the instance of Bank Realisation Certificate, it is a specific case of the petitioner is that, the petitioner had produced Ext.P10 which is termed as advice of Foreign Inward Remittance, issued by the Bank, and that satisfies the requirements for which the Bank Realisation Certificate or FIRC is issued.</div>
<div><b>10. </b>According to the petitioner, merely because, the Bank titled it as an Advise of Foreign Inward Remittance, the same cannot be rejected. After carefully going through the same, I am of the view that the authority should not have issued deficiency memos simply going by the title of the certificate instead of going into the contents of the document, and finding out whether that satisfies the requirements. Ultimately, the said document is insisted upon, to show the genuineness of and the amounts involved in the transaction, and if the documents produced by the petitioner satisfies the said purpose, necessarily the same will have to be entertained and considered on its merits. Therefore, I find that the said ground mentioned in the deficiency memo is not justifiable.</div>
<div><b>11. </b>Lastly, when it comes to the question of limitation, that is also a matter, where the petitioner could offer explanation, and the scrutiny under sub-rule (2) of Rule 90, does not contemplates for the same. If the claim is barred by limitation, the application can be rejected, at the time when the application is considered on merits after hearing the petitioner and it need not be rejected by issuing a deficiency memo under Rule 90(2) of the Rules. Thus when considering all the relevant aspects, I find that the deficiency memos issued to the petitioner are not legally sustainable and all the deficiencies pointed out in those memos are matters to be considered by the authority concerned, while the refund application is considered on merits.</div>
<div>In such circumstances, this writ petitions are disposed of holding that, the reasons mentioned in Ext.P2 memos are not relevant factors for the purpose of entertaining/accepting the applications of refund, and with a direction to entertain the refund applications which shall be re-filed by the petitioner within a period of two weeks from the date of receipt of a copy of this judgment. Upon submission of those applications, the same shall be considered and while conducting the scrutiny under Rule 90(2) of the said applications, the deficiencies as referred to above shall not be treated as valid grounds to issue deficiency memos. It is clarified that, all the observations made in this writ petition with regard to the contentions raised by the petitioner, were only with respect to the scope of scrutiny contemplated under Rule 90(2) of the CGST rules, and it shall be open to the authority concerned to consider the said claims on merits.</div>
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		<title>Ad Hoc Transfer Pricing Adjustments Without Applying Prescribed Methods Are Illegal and Interest Under Section 234A Is Unwarranted for Portal Technical Glitches</title>
		<link>https://www.taxheal.com/and-girish-agrawal-accountant-member-34.html</link>
		
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Ashwani Kumar]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Mon, 14 Sep 2026 11:33:06 +0000</pubDate>
				<category><![CDATA[Income Tax]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Deputy Commissioner]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[IN THE ITAT MUMBAI BENCH]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Income-tax Circle]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[UCB India (P.) Ltd.]]></category>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">https://www.taxheal.com/?p=140696</guid>

					<description><![CDATA[<p>Ad Hoc Transfer Pricing Adjustments Without Applying Prescribed Methods Are Illegal and Interest Under Section 234A Is Unwarranted for Portal Technical Glitches Issue Transfer Pricing: Whether the Transfer Pricing Officer (TPO) can make an ad-hoc transfer pricing adjustment by reallocating consideration between an assessee and its Associated Enterprises (AEs) without applying any of the mandatory… <span class="read-more"><a href="https://www.taxheal.com/and-girish-agrawal-accountant-member-34.html">Read More &#187;</a></span></p>
]]></description>
										<content:encoded><![CDATA[<div id="model-response-message-contentr_3b119d9de4088caf" class="markdown markdown-main-panel md-content enable-luminous-fast-follows enable-updated-hr-color tutor-markdown-rendering" dir="ltr" aria-busy="false" aria-live="polite">
<div><strong>Ad Hoc Transfer Pricing Adjustments Without Applying Prescribed Methods Are Illegal and Interest Under Section 234A Is Unwarranted for Portal Technical Glitches</strong></div>
<div><b data-path-to-node="1" data-index-in-node="0">Issue</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="2">
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="2,0,0" data-index-in-node="0">Transfer Pricing:</b> Whether the Transfer Pricing Officer (TPO) can make an ad-hoc transfer pricing adjustment by reallocating consideration between an assessee and its Associated Enterprises (AEs) without applying any of the mandatory prescribed methods under Section 92C.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="2,1,0" data-index-in-node="0">Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT) &amp; DTAA Rate:</b> Whether the rate of Dividend Distribution Tax under Section 115-O can be restricted to the lower treaty rate (15%) provided under Article 10(2) of the India–Belgium DTAA.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="2,2,0" data-index-in-node="0">Interest under Section 234A:</b> Whether mandatory interest under Section 234A is leviable when a return of income is delayed by a few seconds due to technical glitches on the e-filing portal on the due date.</div>
</li>
</ul>
<div><b data-path-to-node="3" data-index-in-node="0">Facts</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="4">
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="4,0,0" data-index-in-node="0">Slump Sale &amp; IP Assignment:</b> The assessee (a Indian pharmaceutical company and wholly-owned subsidiary of a Belgian entity) sold its identified business via slump sale to an unrelated third party for ₹434.65 crores (final ₹440.80 crores). Separately, the buyer paid ₹359.20 crores to the assessee&#8217;s foreign AEs for trademark/IP assignments out of a total negotiated deal of ₹800 crores (55.10% to assessee, 44.90% to AEs).</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="4,1,0" data-index-in-node="0">TPO&#8217;s Reallocation:</b> The TPO disregarded the actual consideration and independent valuation, applied no benchmarking or valuation methodology, and arbitrarily reallocated 99% of the total ₹800 crore transaction value (₹792 crores) to the assessee based on Marketing Intangibles/AMP expenses. This resulted in an ad-hoc TP adjustment of ₹357.35 crores.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="4,2,0" data-index-in-node="0">DDT Payment:</b> The assessee paid dividend of ₹200 crores to its Belgian parent and deposited DDT of ₹40.71 crores at the statutory rate of 20.36% under Section 115-O, later claiming a refund of ₹10.71 crores by asserting the DTAA rate cap of 15% under Article 10(2).</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="4,3,0" data-index-in-node="0">Portal Delay for ITR Filing:</b> The assessee attempted to submit its return of income on the statutory due date, but due to severe server congestion and technical glitches on the official e-filing portal, the upload completed a few seconds after midnight, stamping the acknowledgement with the next day&#8217;s date and triggering Section 234A interest.</div>
</li>
</ul>
<div><b data-path-to-node="5" data-index-in-node="0">Decision</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="6">
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="6,0,0" data-index-in-node="0">Ad-Hoc Transfer Pricing Adjustment Set Aside [Section 92C]:</b> Held in favour of the assessee. Transfer pricing determination without applying any of the six prescribed methods under Section 92C is outside the statutory scheme and legally unsustainable [Paras 7.1 to 7.9].</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="6,1,0" data-index-in-node="0">DDT DTAA Relief Remanded [Section 115-O / Article 10 DTAA]:</b> Remanded to the Assessing Officer. Since the fundamental issue regarding the applicability of DTAA rates to Section 115-O DDT is pending before the Supreme Court, the matter was restored to the AO to decide in accordance with the ultimate outcome of the apex court proceedings [Para 9.2].</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="6,2,0" data-index-in-node="0">Section 234A Interest Deleted [Section 234A]:</b> Held in favour of the assessee. Interest under Section 234A cannot be levied when the delay of a few seconds is attributable to technical glitches on the tax portal beyond the control of the assessee [Para 10.1].</div>
</li>
</ul>
<div><b data-path-to-node="7" data-index-in-node="0">Key Takeaways</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="8">
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="8,0,0" data-index-in-node="0">Mandate of Section 92C Methods:</b> The TPO cannot arbitrarily reallocate slump sale consideration or trademark values on an ad-hoc basis; applying one of the specific statutory methods under Section 92C supported by economic analysis is mandatory.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="8,1,0" data-index-in-node="0">AMP Expenditures Cannot Replace Valuation:</b> Marketing and promotional expenditures (AMP) alone cannot be used as an informal leverage tool to reassign 99% of deal consideration to an Indian entity while ignoring independent valuation reports.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="8,2,0" data-index-in-node="0">No Penalty/Interest for System Failure:</b> Technical glitches, server crashes, or e-filing portal delays beyond a taxpayer&#8217;s control cannot be penalized with Section 234A statutory interest.</div>
</li>
</ul>
<div id="111070000000000011" style="text-align: center;">IN THE ITAT <span class="researchdochighlight">MUMBAI</span> BENCH &#8216;J&#8217;</div>
<div id="" style="text-align: center;">UCB India (P.) Ltd.</div>
<div style="text-align: center;">v.</div>
<div id="" style="text-align: center;">Deputy Commissioner of Income-tax Circle 8(3)(1)</div>
<div id="dbs_judge" style="text-align: center;"><span id="111170000000080247">Pawan Singh</span>, Judicial Member<br />
and <span id="111170000000015572">Girish Agrawal</span>, Accountant Member</div>
<div style="text-align: center;">IT Appeal No. 905 (MUM) OF 2021<br />
[Assessment year 2016-17]</div>
<div style="text-align: center;">AUGUST  31, <span class="researchdochighlight">2026</span></div>
</div>
<div></div>
<div>
<div id="digest">
<div><b>Rajan Vora</b>, <b>Pranay Gandhi</b>, CAs <b>Ms. Jayshree Thakur</b>, Sr. DR<i> for the Respondent.</i></div>
</div>
<div id="caseOrder">
<div>
<div>ORDER</div>
<div></div>
<div><b>Girish Agrawal, Accountant Member. </b>&#8211; This appeal filed by the assessee is against the final assessment order passed pursuant to the directions of ld. Dispute Resolution Panel-3, <span class="researchdochighlight">Mumbai</span> (DRP) <i>vide</i> order No. ITBA/DRP/F/144C(5)/2020-21/1031623057(1) dated 19.03.2021, u/s. 144C(5) of the Income-tax Act (hereinafter referred to as the &#8220;Act&#8221;), for the Assessment Year 2016-17.</div>
<div><b>2. </b>Assessee has raised the following grounds of appeal:</div>
<div>On the facts and in the circumstances of the case and in law, the learned AO/Joint Commissioner of Income-tax Transfer Pricing-4(2) (Learned TPO) Hon&#8217;ble Panel has:</div>
<div><i>GENERAL</i></div>
<div>1. Erred in assessing the total income at INR 11,31,56,51,392 as against the returned income of INR 3,86,56,51,850 disclosed in the return of income filed.</div>
<div>TRANSFER PRICING ISSUES</div>
<div>2 Erred in proposing an adjustment of INR 3,57,35,40,737 to the total income of the Appellant under Section 92CA(3) of the Act by treating the transaction of sale of identified business to a third-party ie Dr Reckty&#8217;s Laboratories Limited (&#8216;DRL&#8217;) as a deemed international transaction covered under section 92B(2) of the Act.</div>
<div>Without prejudice to the above:</div>
<div>3 Erred in disregarding the valuation reports prepared for benchmarking the arm&#8217;s length price of the identified business of the Appellant including the intellectual property without understanding the assumptions used and basis therein.</div>
<div>4 Erred in upholding the arbitrary approach adopted by the learned TPO in determining the arm&#8217;s length price of the transaction of sale of identified business without applying any of the prescribed five methods.</div>
<div>5 Erred in concluding that the marketing intangibles are owned by the Appellant by alleging that significant advertisement, marketing and promotion (&#8216;AMP&#8217;) expenses have been incurred by the Appellant by computing the alleged AMP expense incorrectly</div>
<div>6 Erred in disregarding that, key intangibles relevant in a pharmaceutical industry such as technical knowhow/manufacturing process/ trademark etc. have substantial value in the lifecycle of a pharmaceutical business and attributing the consideration of the sale of identified business only on account of &#8220;marketing intangibles&#8221;.</div>
<div>7 Erred in not considering the contribution valuation analysis conducted by the Appellant to arrive at an appropriate split of consideration between the Appellant and AEs based on the functions performed by the Appellant and AEs over the life cycle of the products of such business</div>
<div>8 Erred in not considering the documentary evidences filed to demonstrate the functions performed and risks assumed by the AEs about corporate strategy, research and development, technical knowhow/manufacturing process/regulatory filings, trademark/ brand name, marketing/ selling related activities etc. to substantiate the contribution of the AEs and to justify value of owned and developed by it.</div>
<div><i>OTHER DIRECT TAX ISSUES</i></div>
<div>9 Considering the assessed income at INR 1131,56,51,392 instead of INR 743,93,32,610</div>
<div>Earned in considering the total income of the appellant at INR 1131,56,51,392 as against INR 743,93,32,610, thereby, making double addition of capital gains amounting to INR 387,63,18,782</div>
<div>10. Considering the Income from Capital Gains at INR 1132,61,78,301 in the computation sheet Instead of INR 744,98,59,519 as per the assessment order</div>
<div>Erred in considering the Income from capital gains at INR 1132,61,78,301 in the computation sheet instead of INR 744,98,59,519 as per the assessment order.</div>
<div>11. Disallowance of interest on Tax Deducted at Source (&#8216;TDS&#8217;)</div>
<div>Was not justified in making disallowance of interest on delayed payment of TDS of INR 140,023, from income from other source instead of income from business or profession</div>
<div>Refund of excess Dividend Distribution Tax (&#8216;DDT&#8217;) paid to the Non-resident shareholder as per applicable Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (&#8216;DTAA&#8217;)</div>
<div>12. Learned DRP/ AO failed to adjudicate the additional ground filed during the proceeding before the DRP in respect of treaty rate to be applied to DDT paid on dividend paid to the non-resident shareholder</div>
<div>13. Should have appreciated that dividend paid/ distributed to non-resident shareholder namely UCB S.A, Belgium (a tax resident of Belgium), is liable to be taxed under Article 10 of the India -Belgium DTAA (i.e. at the rate of 15%) and not as per section 115-0 of the Act at 20.36%. Accordingly, the Hon&#8217;ble Tribunal may kindly direct the AO to apply treaty rate instead of DDT rate of 20.36%.</div>
<div>Deduction of education cess</div>
<div>14 Learned DRP/ AO failed to adjudicate the additional ground filed during the proceeding before the DRP in respect of deduction of education cess.</div>
<div>15 The appellant prays that ld. Assessing Officer be directed to allow deduction under section 37(1) of the Act in respect of education cess paid during the year on income-tax.</div>
<div>Charge of interest under section 234A of the Act</div>
<div><span class="researchdochighlight">16</span>. Erred in charging interest under section 234A of the Act.</div>
<div>Charge of interest under section 234B of the Act</div>
<div>17. Erred in charging interest of INR 1,02,61,28,519 under section 234B of the Act</div>
<div>Charge of interest under section 234C of the Act</div>
<div>18. Erred in charging interest of INR 36,86,283 under section 234C of the Act as against nil on the returned income.</div>
<div>Penalty proceedings</div>
<div>19. Initiating penalty proceedings u/s 274 r.w.s 271AA of the Act</div>
<div>20. Initiating penalty proceedings u/s 274 r ws 271(1)(<i>c</i>) of the Act</div>
<div>As Additional Ground</div>
<div>21. Erred in passing the final assessment order beyond the time limit prescribed under section 153 of the Act and hence the same is liable to be quashed.</div>
<div><b>2.1</b> . Ground no. 1 is general in nature and shall be subsumed in the other grounds. Ground no. 2 relates to the treatment of the transaction as a Deemed International Transaction. According to the ld. Counsel for the assessee, once ground nos. 3 to 8 challenging the merits of the transfer pricing adjustment are decided, ground no. 2 would be rendered academic and has to be dealt accordingly. Hence, ground nos. 3 to 8 are taken up first for adjudication together as they all challenge the merits of the TP adjustment made by the learned Transfer Pricing Officer (TPO).</div>
<div><b>3. </b>Brief facts of the case are that assessee (hereinafter referred to as &#8220;UCB India&#8221;) is a wholly owned subsidiary of UCB SA, a company incorporated in Belgium. UCB India is engaged in the business of manufacture and distribution of original pharmaceutical research products of the UCB Group, which operates in more than 40 countries. The Group specializes in the fields of central nervous system disorders, allergy and respiratory diseases and immune and inflammatory disorders. UCB India filed its return of income on 01.12.2016, reporting total income at Rs. 386,56,51,850/- under normal provisions of the Act.</div>
<div><b>3.1. </b>During the year, UCB India transferred a part of its identified business involving certain pharmaceutical products to Dr. Reddy&#8217;s Laboratories Limited (&#8220;DRL&#8221;), an unrelated third party, on a slump sale basis vide Business Transfer Agreement (&#8220;BTA&#8221;) dated 01.04.2015. UCB India received a consideration of Rs. 434,64,59,263/- (Rs. 434.65 crore) for this transfer, which was offered to tax as capital gains under section 50B of the Act. Separately, DRL also entered into a Trademark Assignment Agreement (&#8220;TAA&#8221;) dated 16.06.2015 with UCB Farchim SA (Switzerland) and UCB Biopharma SPRL (Belgium) (collectively referred to as &#8220;AEs&#8221; or &#8220;UCB Global&#8221;) for acquisition of the intellectual property rights (&#8220;IPs&#8221;) relating to the identified business sold. The pictorial representation of the transaction structure, as placed before us, is as under:</div>
<div><img fetchpriority="high" decoding="async" id="101010000000425392/1.jpg" src="https://cdn.taxmann.com/Researchimages/101010000000425392/1.jpg" width="317" height="342" /></div>
<div><b>3.2. </b>Financial summary of the entire transaction which took place and is the subject matter of present appeal is tabulated below:</div>
<table class="allborder" width="100%">
<tbody>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Party</td>
<td valign="top">Nature of Transaction</td>
<td valign="top">Consideration (Rs. Crore)</td>
<td valign="top">% Share</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">UCB India Private Limited</td>
<td valign="top">Transfer of identified business (slump sale) vide BTA dated 01.04.2015</td>
<td valign="top">440.80*</td>
<td valign="top">55.10%</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">UCB Global (UCB Parchim SA + UCB Biopharma SPRL)</td>
<td valign="top">Transfer of intellectual property rights vide TAA dated 16.06.2015</td>
<td valign="top">359.20</td>
<td valign="top">44.90%</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Total Consideration (as negotiated with DRL)</td>
<td valign="top"></td>
<td valign="top">800.00</td>
<td valign="top">100.00%</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<div>*Actual amount reported in Form 3CEB: Rs. 434.65 crore. The difference represents adjustments in the final settlement.</div>
<div><b>3.3. </b>Even though the transaction of UCB India was with an unrelated third party DRL, the assessee, out of abundant precaution, reported the transaction of sale of business to DRL as a &#8220;Deemed International Transaction&#8221; in Form 3CEB. Independent valuation reports were obtained from an independent valuer for determination of the value of the identified business of UCB India and the IP owned by UCB Global. The summary of the independent valuation versus the actual consideration received is as under:</div>
<table class="allborder" width="100%">
<tbody>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Particulars</td>
<td valign="top">As per Independent Valuation Report (Rs. Crore)</td>
<td valign="top">Actual Consideration (Rs. Crore)</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Value of identified business of UCB India (excluding Global IP)</td>
<td valign="top">116.89</td>
<td valign="top">440.80*</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Value of IP owned by UCB Global (UCB Farchim SA + UCB Biopharma SPRL)</td>
<td valign="top">543.22</td>
<td valign="top">359.20</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Total value of identified business + IP</td>
<td valign="top">660.11</td>
<td valign="top">800.00</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Share retained by UCB India (%)</td>
<td valign="top">17.71%</td>
<td valign="top">55.10%</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Share of IP in total value (%)</td>
<td valign="top">82.29%</td>
<td valign="top">44.90%</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<div>* Actual receipt amount as reported in Form 3CEB is Rs. 434.65 crore.</div>
<div><b>3.4. </b>Thus, UCB India received Rs. 440.80 crore, representing 55.10% of the total consideration of Rs. 800 crores which is significantly higher than the 17.71% of total value as indicated by the independent valuation report. UCB Global received Rs. 359.20 crore (44.90%), which is significantly lower than its 82.29% IP share per the valuation report. Since UCB India received a consideration exceeding its independent valuation-based entitlement, it was submitted that the transaction complied with the arm&#8217;s length principle (ALP), ensuring fair compensation to UCB India and no loss to the Indian tax authorities.</div>
<div><b>4. </b>The case was selected for scrutiny assessment proceedings and simultaneously, transfer pricing proceedings were initiated by the learned Transfer Pricing Officer (&#8220;learned TPO&#8221;) under section 92CA(2) of the Act. The learned TPO passed the order u/s 92CA(3) of the Act dated 31.10.2019. During the course of TP assessment, the learned TPO disregarded both the actual consideration received by UCB India as well as the independent valuation report and held that the consideration received by UCB Global from DRL should also have been received by UCB India. The learned TPO did not perform any benchmarking analysis nor obtain any valuation report. Instead, in para 6.26 of its order, the learned TPO adopted the &#8220;Other Method&#8221; in an entirely ad hoc manner.</div>
<div><b>4.1. </b>As discussed in para 6.26.5 of the TPO&#8217;s order, learned TPO rejected the method adopted by the assessee. In para 6.26.7, learned TPO described the basis for attribution of consideration by attributing 99% of the total combined consideration (Rs. 792 crore) to UCB India and only 1% (Rs. 8 crore) to UCB Global. This attribution was based primarily on the AMP expenses incurred by UCB India in India, treating these as evidence of economic ownership of marketing intangibles by UCB India. Ld. TPO accordingly proposed a TP adjustment of Rs. 357,35,40,737/- (Rs. 357.35 crore) over and above the consideration of Rs. 434.64 crore actually received by UCB India, thereby rewriting the terms of the Business Transfer Agreement entered into between UCB India and DRL which was an agreement between two unrelated parties.</div>
<div><b>4.2. </b>The draft assessment order dated 21.12.2019 was passed by the learned AO u/s 144C(1) r.w.s 143(3) of the Act, proposing to tax the TP adjustment of Rs. 357.35 crore as business income and not as capital gains. Ld. AO also made a further addition on account of disallowance of net working capital while computing the net worth of the transferred undertaking of Rs. 23,52,21,796/-. Assessee filed objections before the ld. Dispute Resolution Panel-2 (the &#8220;DRP&#8221;), <span class="researchdochighlight">Mumbai</span>. Ld. DRP, vide its directions dated 19.03.2021, disposed of the objections as under:</div>
<table class="allborder" width="100%">
<tbody>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Issue</td>
<td valign="top">DRP Direction</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Transfer pricing adjustment on account of sale of identified business</td>
<td valign="top">Upheld, Rs. 357,35,40,737/-</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Disallowance of net working capital while computing net worth</td>
<td valign="top">Directed to allow deduction of Rs. 23,52,21,796/- subject to verification</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Characterisation of TP adjustment (business income v. capital gains)</td>
<td valign="top">Directed AO to tax the TP adjustment as capital gains, not as business income</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Additional grounds on DDT refund and cess deduction</td>
<td valign="top">Not adjudicated</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<div><b>4.3. </b>Based on the DRP directions, ld. AO issued the final assessment order dated 22.04.2021 u/s 143(3) r.w.s 144C(13) of the Act with the following adjustments:</div>
<table class="allborder" width="100%">
<tbody>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Sr. No.</td>
<td valign="top">Particulars</td>
<td valign="top">Amount (Rs.)</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">1</td>
<td valign="top">Income from Capital Gains on sale of identified business</td>
<td valign="top">7,44,98,59,519</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">2</td>
<td valign="top">Interest on TDS</td>
<td valign="top">1,40,023</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<div><b>4.4. </b>Assessee observed errors in the final assessment order and filed a rectification application u/s 154 of the Act on 23.04.2021, in relation to (<i>i</i>) double addition of capital gains amounting to Rs. 387,63,18,782/-; (<i>ii</i>) wrong classification of TDS interest disallowance; and (<i>iii</i>) erroneous computation of interest u/s 234A, 234B and 234C. Ld. AO passed a rectification order dated 28.12.2023 u/s 154 r.w.s 143(3) of the Act, assessing the total income at Rs. 743,93,32,610/-. Aggrieved, assessee is in appeal before the Tribunal.</div>
<div><b>5. </b>Ld. Counsel for the assessee Shri Rajan Vora made detailed submission, raising various contentions in respect of ground nos. 3 to 8 which challenges the merits of the TP adjustment of Rs. 357.35 crore made by the ld. TPO and confirmed by the ld. DRP. The multi-fold contentions so raised are discussed herein below and adjudicated thereupon.</div>
<div><b>5.1. </b>The method adopted by the TPO is not within the realm of the &#8220;Other Method&#8221; and no prescribed method has been applied: Ld. TPO adopted an entirely <i>ad hoc</i> approach by attributing 99% of the total consideration of Rs. 800 crores to UCB India without applying any of the six prescribed methods under section 92C of the Act, <i>viz. </i>, CUP, RPM, CPM, TNMM, PSM or the &#8220;Other Method&#8221; in any recognised manner. The &#8220;Other Method&#8221; prescribed under Rule 10AB of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 (the Rules) requires the determination of ALP based on the price charged or paid in respect of any property transferred or services rendered to an unrelated entity in similar circumstances. No such analysis has been undertaken by the ld. TPO. The determination of ALP by the ld. TPO is arbitrary and not backed by any recognised transfer pricing methodology. Reliance was placed on the following decisions:</div>
<div><b>5.1.1. </b><i>CIT</i> v. <i>Lever India Exports Ltd.  </i> (Bombay) &#8211; Ld. TPO&#8217;s jurisdiction is specific and limited <i>viz. </i>to determine the ALP of an international transaction in terms of Chapter X of the Act. The <i>ad hoc</i> determination of ALP dehors section 92C of the Act cannot be sustained. The relevant extract is reproduced below for ready reference:</div>
<div>&#8220;7. We note that the Tribunal has recorded the fact that the respondent assessee has launched new products which involved huge advertisement expenditure. The sharing of such expenditure by the respondent assessee is a strategy to develop its business. This results in improving the brand image of the products, resulting in higher profit to the respondent assessee due to higher sales. Further, it must be emphasized that the TPO&#8217;s jurisdiction was to only determine the ALP of an International Transaction. In the above view, the TPO has to examine whether or not the method adopted to determine the ALP is the most appropriate and also whether the comparables selected are appropriate or not. In fact, as found both by the CIT(A) as well as the Tribunal that neither the method selected as the most appropriate method to determine the ALP is challenged nor the comparables taken by the respondent assessee is challenged by the TPO. Therefore, the ad-hoc determination of ALP by the TPO dehors Section 92C of the Act cannot be sustained.&#8221;</div>
<div><b>5.1.2. </b><i>Kodak India (P.) Ltd. </i>v. <i>Addl. CIT </i><a id="anchor_47190.38787907578"></a> (<span class="researchdochighlight">Mumbai</span>) affirmed by Hon&#8217;ble Bombay High Court in <i>CIT</i> v. <i>Kodak India (P.) Ltd. </i><a id="anchor_26785.349149556925"></a>[2017] 79   (Bombay) &#8211; The relevant extract from para 66 to 68 is reproduced below for ready reference:</div>
<div>&#8220;66. By the use of the word &#8220;shall&#8221;, for computing the ALP in one of the following methods, the Legislature has cast an embargo that no seventh method could be adopted by the TPO for computing the ALP.</div>
<div>67. We cannot accept the arguments of the DR that the word any has been used in section 92C(1), which could give leeway to the TPO to ascribe to a non-specific method. Word any, is founded on the suffix, &#8220;of the following methods being the most appropriate method&#8221;. Therefore, the ambit of the word any in section 92C(1) has been restricted within the precinct of the five specific methods.</div>
<div>68. Taking into account the clear and unambiguous wordings of the provisions of the Income-tax Act and Rules and respectfully following the decision of the Special Bench in the case of LG Electronics India (P.) Ltd. (<i>supra</i>), we hold that even on this legal issue, the assessee succeeds.&#8221;</div>
<div><b>5.1.3. </b><i>Capgemini India (P.) Ltd. </i>v. <i>Deputy Commissioner of Income-tax </i> (<span class="researchdochighlight">Mumbai</span> &#8211; <span class="researchdochighlight">Trib</span>.)/ ITA 1917/Mum/2023 dated 23.02.2023, affirmed by Hon&#8217;ble Bombay High Court in <i>Pr. CIT</i> v. <i>Capgemini India (P.) Ltd. </i><a id="anchor_60687.6464575901"></a> (Bombay) &#8211; The TPO is required to follow the prescribed methods and failure to do so renders the TPO&#8217;s order vulnerable. Hon&#8217;ble Court held:</div>
<div>&#8220;4. Further, the Tribunal, in this case, has relied upon the decisions in the case of <i>Commissioner of Income Tax</i> v. <i>Kodak India (P) Ltd. </i><a id="anchor_33385.70604657588"></a>  (Bombay)<i>and Barclays Bank PLC</i> v. <i>Additional Director of Income Tax </i><a id="anchor_49273.86230344917"></a> (<span class="researchdochighlight">Mumbai</span>), to hold that it is incumbent upon the TPO to follow the method prescribed under the Act and when such methods are not followed, the decision of the TPO is rendered vulnerable. Kodak India Ltd. (<i>supra</i>) also holds that the failure to follow any method prescribed by the law does not entitle the TPO to rectify the mistake in the second innings.&#8221;</div>
<div><b>5.2. </b>AMP expenses are for sales promotion, not for brand building, no AMP adjustment in preceding years: Ld. TPO and ld. DR relied primarily on the AMP expenses incurred by UCB India to allege that UCB India had created economic ownership of marketing intangibles in India. However, AMP expenses are incurred for affecting sales and promoting products in the market, they are not incurred for building the brand. The brand is built and owned by UCB Global through its decades of research, development, regulatory filings and clinical trials. Further, it is a material fact that no TP adjustment was made in respect of AMP expenses in any of the preceding assessment years. The approach of the Revenue of attributing value based on AMP expenses alone is misplaced, particularly in the absence of any AMP adjustment in earlier years, and cannot be used to retrospectively recharacterize value attribution. Analogous examples from other industries confirm that branded products consistently command higher value than generic equivalents, reinforcing the importance of IP and brand equity developed by the IP owner.</div>
<div><b>5.3. </b>Products do not lose significance on expiry of patent: Ld. TPO attributed virtually the entire IP value to 1% and implicitly concluded that IP &#8220;pales into insignificance&#8221; after 3-5 years. This approach ignores the long-term nature of pharmaceutical R&amp;D and IP protection, which typically spans 10-20 years. Even after patent expiry, innovator products command a premium over generics due to brand equity, superior manufacturing quality and clinical trial validation. Ld. TPO&#8217;s determination of 1% contribution attributable to UCB Global is not based on any factual analysis, scientific methodology or recognized benchmarking and is therefore arbitrary.</div>
<div><b>5.4. </b>TPO cannot rewrite independent agreements entered into by unrelated parties: UCB India entered into the BTA with DRL, an unrelated third party, on arm&#8217;s length terms. UCB Global entered into a separate TAA with DRL. Both are independent agreements at separately negotiated and agreed consideration. The Revenue authorities do not have the power to rewrite terms of an agreement unless there is demonstrated collusion between the parties or unless the transaction is shown to be a sham. In the present case, no finding of collusion or sham has been made.</div>
<div><b>5.4.1. </b>Reliance in this regard was placed on <i>D.S. Bist &amp; Sons</i> v. <i>CIT </i>49 ITR 276 (Delhi) which held that the Act does not clothe the taxing authority with any power or jurisdiction to re-write the terms of an agreement, particularly when the parties are not at fault and there is no suggestion of collusion. The relevant extract is reproduced below for ready reference:</div>
<div>&#8220;The Act does not clothe the taxing authority with any power or jurisdiction to rewrite the terms of the agreement entered into, particularly in view of the finding of the Tribunal that there is nothing to suggest that the parties were not dealing with each other at arms&#8217; length and there is no suggestion of any collusion between the partners of the assessed firm on the one hand and K on the other. Unless there is solid material on record before the income-tax authorities, it is not permissible to rewrite the terms of the commercial agreement entered into when the agreement is held as valid and genuine and not collusive and the two parties are held to be dealing at arms&#8217; length while entering into the agreement.&#8221;</div>
<div><b>5.4.2. </b><i>Reliance was also placed on </i><i>CIT</i> v. <i>EKL Appliances Ltd.  </i>345 ITR 241 (Delhi), wherein it has been held:</div>
<div>&#8220;18. Two exceptions have been allowed to the aforesaid principle and they are (<i>i</i>) where the economic substance of a transaction differs from its form and (<i>ii</i>) where the form and substance of the transaction are the same but arrangements made in relation to the transaction, viewed in their totality, differ from those which would have been adopted by independent enterprises behaving in a commercially rational manner. 19. There is no reason why the OECD guidelines should not be taken as a valid input in the instant case.&#8221;</div>
<div><b>5.5. </b>Contribution analysis, a scientific basis adopted by the assessee: Assessee undertook a detailed contribution analysis to demonstrate the respective contributions of UCB India and UCB Global to the value of the identified business. The analysis was submitted before the ld. DRP vide submissions dated 04.02.2021. The product portfolio sold by UCB India to DRL was categorised into four baskets based on the nature of products and the relative contributions of UCB India and UCB Global which is tabulated below:</div>
<table class="allborder" width="100%">
<tbody>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Part</td>
<td valign="top">Particulars</td>
<td valign="top">Description</td>
<td valign="top">% of Portfolio</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">I</td>
<td valign="top">Original innovator products</td>
<td valign="top">Owned and developed by UCB Global; consists of original products</td>
<td valign="top">69%</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">II</td>
<td valign="top">Product extensions/variations</td>
<td valign="top">Developed by UCB India, leveraged on UCB Global trademark/brands; owned by UCB Global</td>
<td valign="top">18%</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">III</td>
<td valign="top">Generic products</td>
<td valign="top">Owned by UCB India</td>
<td valign="top">6%</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">IV</td>
<td valign="top">Other arrangements</td>
<td valign="top">Arrangement with Indian third parties</td>
<td valign="top">7%</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Total</td>
<td valign="top"></td>
<td valign="top"></td>
<td valign="top">100%</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<div><b>5.5.1. </b>The contribution analysis was computed by assigning weights to the functions and sub-functions performed by UCB India and UCB Global in each product category, reflecting their respective roles in creating value within the multinational group. Based on business valuation, 75% of total value was attributed to IP, owned by UCB Global and the remaining 25% to other assets on a conservative basis allocated entirely to UCB India. The 75% attributable to IP was then split between UCB India and UCB Global based on quantitative contributions across the four product baskets. The resulting split is summarised below:</div>
<table class="allborder" width="100%">
<tbody>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Particulars</td>
<td valign="top">UCB India&#8217;s Share</td>
<td valign="top">UCB Global&#8217;s Share</td>
<td valign="top">Total</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">PART I: Original innovator products</td>
<td valign="top">12.54%</td>
<td valign="top">39.16%</td>
<td valign="top">51.69%</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">PART II: Product extensions/variations</td>
<td valign="top">12.00%</td>
<td valign="top">1.48%</td>
<td valign="top">13.49%</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">PART III: Generic products</td>
<td valign="top">4.81%</td>
<td valign="top">0%</td>
<td valign="top">4.81%</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">PART IV: Local arrangement</td>
<td valign="top">0.75%</td>
<td valign="top">4.26%</td>
<td valign="top">5.01%</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Share in IP contribution</td>
<td valign="top">30.10%</td>
<td valign="top">44.90%</td>
<td valign="top">75.00%</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Balance business valuation (allocated entirely to UCB India on conservative basis)</td>
<td valign="top">25.00%</td>
<td valign="top">0%</td>
<td valign="top">25.00%</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Total share in contribution</td>
<td valign="top">55.10%</td>
<td valign="top">44.90%</td>
<td valign="top">100.00%</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<div><b>5.5.2. </b>The analysis quantitatively supports the actual split of consideration, that is 55.10% to UCB India and 44.90% to UCB Global, received in the BTA and TAA. The contribution analysis was placed before the ld. DRP but was not adequately considered.</div>
<div><b>5.6. </b>No remand to TPO when prescribed methods have not been followed: Since the ld. TPO has on an ad hoc basis made the TP adjustment without applying any of the prescribed six methods, the Tribunal should not provide a second opportunity to the ld. TPO to re-determine the ALP. This principle has been established by the Hon&#8217;ble Bombay High Court and <span class="researchdochighlight">Mumbai</span> ITAT in <i>Kodak India Pvt. Ltd. </i>(<i>supra</i>), <i>Johnson &amp; Johnson Ltd. </i>v. <i>Commissioner of Income-tax-LTU </i>150 ITD 377 (<span class="researchdochighlight">Mumbai</span>)/ITA 83/Mum/2011, affirmed by Hon&#8217;ble Bombay High Court in <i>CIT</i> v. <i>Johnson &amp; Johnson Ltd.  </i> (Bombay) and <i>Capgemini India (P.) Ltd. </i>(<i>supra</i>). The principle is that when mandatory provision of the Act has been either superseded or ignored, it goes to the jurisdiction of the authority and another opportunity cannot be afforded to rectify the mistake.</div>
<div><b>6. </b><i>Per contra</i>, ld. DR supported the orders of the authorities below. The arguments advanced by the ld. DR were primarily on the basis of allocation of consideration as made by the ld. TPO, contending that:</div>
<table class="list">
<tbody>
<tr>
<td class="list" align="right" valign="top">(<i>a</i>)</td>
<td class="list" align="justify" valign="top"></td>
<td class="list" align="justify" valign="top">ld. TPO rightly relied on AMP expenses to establish economic ownership of marketing intangibles by UCB India;</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<table class="list">
<tbody>
<tr>
<td class="list" align="right" valign="top">(<i>b</i>)</td>
<td class="list" align="justify" valign="top"></td>
<td class="list" align="justify" valign="top">absence of royalty payment by UCB India to UCB Global for use of IPs demonstrates that the IPs were of negligible value in the Indian market; and</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<table class="list">
<tbody>
<tr>
<td class="list" align="right" valign="top">(<i>c</i>)</td>
<td class="list" align="justify" valign="top"></td>
<td class="list" align="justify" valign="top">the valuation approach adopted by the assessee does not correctly reflect the economic reality of the transaction. Ld. DR submitted that the TP adjustment confirmed by the ld. DRP be upheld.</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<div><b>7. </b>We have heard both the parties and perused the material on record. We have also given our thoughtful consideration to the submissions made as well as the judicial precedents referred before us. We have also gone through the paper books placed on record by the assessee.</div>
<div><b>7.1. </b>Starting point for us is the analysis of the nature of impugned transaction. UCB India transferred its identified pharmaceutical business to DRL, an unrelated third party, on an arm&#8217;s length basis through a BTA, dated 01.04.2015. The BTA was negotiated independently between two unrelated parties. The consideration of Rs. 434.65 crore (Rs. 440.80 crore as per the final settlement) received by UCB India was the outcome of this independent and arm&#8217;s length negotiation. DRL separately approached UCB Global for the IP rights relating to the same identified business and entered into an independent TAA, dated 16.06.2015 under which UCB Global received Rs. 359.20 crore. There are thus, two separate and distinct agreements, one between UCB India and DRL, and the other between UCB Global and DRL, both entered into independently with the same unrelated third party.</div>
<div><b>7.2. </b>Ld. TPO has without applying any of the six prescribed methods under section 92C of the Act, arbitrarily determined that 99% of the aggregate consideration received from DRL <i>i.e. </i>, Rs. 792 crores out of the total of Rs. 800 crores should have been received by UCB India alone, attributing only 1% <i>i.e. </i>, Rs. 8 crores to UCB Global. This determination was made on an <i>ad hoc</i> basis, primarily by reference to AMP expenses incurred by UCB India, without any independent valuation, benchmarking study or economic analysis. In para 6.26 of its order, ld. TPO purported to apply the &#8220;Other Method.&#8221; However, the &#8220;Other Method&#8221; as prescribed under Rule 10AB requires a determination of ALP based on price charged or paid in comparable uncontrolled transactions. No such comparable analysis has been carried out. The &#8220;Other Method&#8221; has been cited merely as a label; no recognisable methodology has been applied within its parameters. What has been done by the ld. TPO is therefore outside the provisions of section 92C of the Act.</div>
<div><b>7.3. </b>We note that section 92C(1) mandates that the ALP shall be computed having regard to the most appropriate method from the prescribed methods. The use of the word &#8220;shall&#8221; creates a mandatory obligation. Ld. TPO cannot invent a methodology outside the prescribed methods. The decisions of the Hon&#8217;ble jurisdictional Bombay High Court in <i>Lever India Exports Ltd. </i>(<i>supra</i>), <i>Kodak India Pvt. Ltd. </i>(<i>supra</i>) and <i>Capgemini India (P.) Ltd. </i>(<i>supra</i>), all consistently held that the determination of ALP is required to be done only by one of the prescribed methods and an ad hoc determination dehors section 92C cannot be sustained. These decisions carry the force of binding nature, being jurisdictional High Court. Following these binding precedents, we hold that the approach adopted by the ld. TPO in making the TP adjustment of Rs. 357.35 crore on an ad hoc basis, without applying any of the prescribed methods, is contrary to the mandatory requirements of section 92C and cannot be sustained.</div>
<div><b>7.4. </b>Ld. TPO&#8217;s reliance on AMP expenses to establish economic ownership of marketing intangibles by UCB India is fundamentally flawed. AMP expenses are incurred for promoting and selling products in the market, for affecting sales and not for building the brand or creating intellectual property. The brand, the trademark, the technical know-how and the manufacturing process have been developed, registered and protected by UCB Global over decades of research, regulatory filings and clinical trials. The legal ownership of IPs vested squarely with UCB Global. The economic ownership of an intangible cannot be presumed merely from the incurrence of marketing expenses by a distributor. Furthermore, there has been no TP adjustment to AMP expenses in any of the preceding years. The ld. TPO cannot now, for the first time, use AMP expenses retrospectively to recharacterize the value attribution between UCB India and UCB Global.</div>
<div><b>7.5. </b>Ld. TPO&#8217;s implicit proposition that IPs lose significance with the passage of time and upon patent expiry does not withstand scrutiny in the pharmaceutical context. Innovator pharmaceutical products command a sustained premium over generic substitutes long after patent expiry, on account of brand equity, physician familiarity, manufacturing quality and clinical validation. The research and development lifecycle for pharmaceutical products spans 10-20 years. UCB Global&#8217;s contributions, through its research, technical know-how, regulatory filings, trademark registrations, maintenance and global marketing strategies, have built enduring value in the products sold by UCB India. To attribute 1% of this enduring value to UCB Global is not grounded in any factual or economic analysis and is arbitrary.</div>
<div><b>7.6. </b>The BTA between UCB India and DRL and the TAA between UCB Global and DRL are separate, independent, commercially negotiated agreements between unrelated parties. Revenue has produced no finding of collusion between the contracting parties, no finding that the agreements are shams and no finding that the parties were not dealing at arm&#8217;s length with each other. In the absence of such findings, Revenue does not have the jurisdiction to rewrite the terms of these commercial arrangements. As held by Hon&#8217;ble High Court of Delhi in <i>D.S. Bist &amp; Sons</i> (<i>supra</i>), the taxing authority has no power to substitute values placed in a valid, genuine and non-collusive commercial agreement. This principle is not merely a rule of procedure, it is a substantive limitation on the jurisdiction of the Revenue under the transfer pricing provisions.</div>
<div><b>7.7. </b>Assessee submitted a detailed, scientifically grounded contribution analysis categorising the product portfolio into four baskets and assigning quantitative contributions based on the functions performed by UCB India and UCB Global, respectively, across the product lifecycle. This analysis was placed before the ld. DRP. The analysis arrived at UCB India&#8217;s share at 55.10% and UCB Global&#8217;s share at 44.90%, precisely matching the actual consideration received. Ld. TPO and the ld. DRP did not engage with this contribution analysis in any meaningful manner. The entire basis of their determination was <i>ad hoc</i> and not grounded in any of the accepted methodologies. We find the contribution analysis submitted by the assessee to be a more credible, scientific and reasoned basis for determination of the split of consideration than the <i>ad hoc</i> approach adopted by the ld. TPO.</div>
<div><b>7.8. </b>Further, since the ld. TPO has failed to apply any of the prescribed methods under section 92C and has made the TP adjustment on an entirely ad hoc basis, we are in agreement with the contention of the ld. Counsel for the assessee that the matter should not be remanded to the ld. TPO to provide a second opportunity. For this, we find force from the principle enunciated by the Hon&#8217;ble jurisdictional High Court of Bombay in <i>Kodak India Pvt. Ltd. </i>and <i>Capgemini India (P.) Ltd. </i>(<i>supra</i>). Ld. DR&#8217;s request for a remand to the learned TPO is therefore cannot be accepted.</div>
<div><b>7.9. </b>In view of the foregoing discussion on each of the contentions put forth by the ld. Counsel for the assessee, we hold that the TP adjustment of Rs. 357,35,40,737/- (Rs. 357.35 crores) proposed by the learned TPO u/s 92CA(3) of the Act and confirmed by the ld. DRP is not sustainable. The TP adjustment so made is accordingly deleted. Ground nos. 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 raised by the assessee are allowed.</div>
<div><b>8. </b>In view of our finding on Ground nos. 3 to 8 above whereby the TP adjustment of Rs. 357.35 crore has been deleted in its entirety, ground no. 2, which challenges the characterisation of the transaction as a Deemed International Transaction under section 92B(2) is rendered academic. Accordingly, ground no. 2 is disposed of as academic without any further adjudication.</div>
<div><b>9. </b>Ground nos. 12 and 13 relate to refund of excess Dividend Distribution Tax (&#8220;DDT&#8221;) paid by the assessee on dividend distributed to its non-resident shareholder UCB SA, Belgium. During the year, assessee paid a dividend of Rs. 200 crore to UCB SA, Belgium, on which DDT of Rs. 40,71,52,941/- was paid under section 115-O at the rate of 20.36%. Assessee contends that the applicable rate should be 15% under Article 10(2) of the India-Belgium DTAA, being more beneficial under section 90(2) and accordingly, claims a refund of excess DDT of Rs. 10,71,52,941/-, being 5.36% (i.e., 20.36% &#8211; 15%). This issue was raised as an additional ground before the ld. DRP which failed to adjudicate the same. Assessee has placed reliance on the decision of the Hon&#8217;ble Bombay High Court in <i>Colorcon Asia (P.) Ltd. </i>v. <i>Jt. CIT </i><a id="anchor_45428.849901500536"></a>[2025] 181  [<span class="researchdochighlight">2026</span>] 486 ITR 476 (Bombay) in support of its claim.</div>
<div><b>9.1. </b>We note the subsequent developments as described in the order of the Coordinate Bench where the undersigned Accountant Member is the author, in the case of <i>Huhtamaki India Limited</i> v. <i>DCIT </i> (<span class="researchdochighlight">Mumbai</span> &#8211; <span class="researchdochighlight">Trib</span>.)/ITA 7960/Mum/2025, order dated 08.05.2026. The relevant portion of the said order is extracted below for ready reference:</div>
<div>&#8220;Before us, ld. Counsel for the assessee placed reliance on the decision of Hon&#8217;ble jurisdictional High Court of Bombay in the case of <i>Colorcon Asia (P) Ltd. </i>v. <i>JCIT  </i> (Bom) which according to him has settled the controversy in favor of the assessee. In this regard, it is important to take note of the recent development after the conclusion of hearing in the present case before us. Hon&#8217;ble High Court of Bombay has referred the issue in the case of Colorcon Asia (<i>supra</i>) which is similar to the one raised by the assessee through its additional ground, to the larger bench. The reference to larger bench is made by the Hon&#8217;ble Court to settle the issue of whether the Coordinate Bench decision in Colorcon Asia (<i>supra</i>) reads down the correct position in law or whether it is per incuriam, that is, the same being contrary to the provision of section 115-O, considering the decision of Hon&#8217;ble Supreme Court in the case of Godrej and Boyce Manufacturing Company Limited. Subsequent to this reference to the larger bench of the Hon&#8217;ble High Court, Hon&#8217;ble Supreme Court decided to hear the SLP filed by the Revenue in the case of Colorcon Asia (<i>supra</i>). While admitting the SLP of the Revenue, Hon&#8217;ble Supreme Court observed that it is an interesting case and thus, posted the matter for hearing on 13.05.2026. In view of the stated subsequent development after the conclusion of hearing before us, we find it appropriate to remit this particular issue raised by the assessee by way of additional grounds, to the file of ld. Assessing Officer so as to give effect to the issue based on the outcome of the above stated matter pending before the Hon&#8217;ble Supreme Court. Needless to say, assessee be given reasonable opportunity of being heard in this regard. Accordingly, additional grounds raised by the assessee are allowed for statistical purposes.&#8221;</div>
<div><b>9.2. </b>We are confronted with the same factual and legal position in the present case. The controversy regarding the applicability of DTAA rate to DDT levied under section 115-O is pending before the Hon&#8217;ble Supreme Court in the matter arising from the <i>Colorcon Asia</i> (<i>supra</i>) case. The issue involved is purely a question of law and does not require verification of any additional facts. In these circumstances, we find it appropriate to follow the same approach adopted by the Coordinate Bench in <i>Huhtamaki India Limited</i> (<i>supra</i>) and remit this issue to the file of the ld. Assessing Officer to give effect to it based on the outcome of the proceedings pending before the Hon&#8217;ble Supreme Court. The ld. Assessing Officer shall afford the assessee a reasonable opportunity of being heard in this regard. Ground nos. 12 and 13 are accordingly, allowed for statistical purposes.</div>
<div><b>10. </b>Ground no. <span class="researchdochighlight">16</span> relates to levy of interest of Rs. 1,68,21,779/- under section 234A. Factual position is that the assessee intended to file its return of income on 30.11.2016 <i>i.e. </i>, the due date. However, due to a technical glitch on the e-filing portal and the rush hours associated with the deadline, the return got uploaded with a delay of a few seconds, causing the date of filing to appear as 01.12.2016 on the ITR acknowledgement. Ld. AO charged interest under section 234A treating the return as filed after the due date.</div>
<div><b>10.1. </b>Assessee submitted that this delay was beyond its control and was solely on account of a technical glitch on the e-filing portal. Reliance has been placed on several decisions including <i>Bombay Mercantile Co-op. Bank Ltd. </i>v. <i>Central Board of Direct Taxes </i><a id="anchor_87467.44208273526"></a>  106/[2011] 332 ITR 87 (Bombay) and <i>Cosme Matias Menezes (P.) Ltd. </i>v. <i>CIT  </i>379 ITR 31 (Bombay). It is settled law that where the delay in filing is attributable to causes beyond the assessee&#8217;s control, interest under section 234A is not leviable. Ld. AO has not disputed the factual position that the return was ready and intended to be filed on 30.11.2016. Given the factual position and the judicial precedents cited, we hold that interest under section 234A of Rs. 1,68,21,779/- levied on the assessee is not warranted. Ground no. <span class="researchdochighlight">16</span> is allowed.</div>
<div><b>11. </b>Ground no. 21 by way of additional ground challenges the validity of final assessment order dated 22.04.2021 passed by the ld. AO on the ground that it was passed beyond the time limit prescribed under section 153. Since it goes to the root of the matter and all the relevant facts relating to the legal issues so raised are already on record. The same is admitted for adjudication.</div>
<div><b>11.1. </b>Assessee contends that the time limit for passing the final assessment order for AY 2016-17 after accounting for the 12-month extension available on account of a reference made under section 92CA, was 31.12.2019. The final assessment order was passed on 22.04.2021, which the assessee contends is beyond the prescribed time limit. Assessee placed reliance on decisions of Hon&#8217;ble Madras High Court in Roca Bathroom Products Private Limited and the Hon&#8217;ble Bombay High Court in <i>Shelf Drilling Ron Tappmeyer Ltd. </i>v. <i>Asstt. CIT, International Taxation </i><a id="anchor_42123.471012042704"></a> 457 ITR 161 (Bombay) to contend that section 153 and section 144C are not mutually exclusive and the period of limitation under section 153 applies. Hon&#8217;ble Supreme Court in <i>Asstt. CIT (International Taxation)</i> v. <i>Shelf Drilling Ron Tappmeyer Ltd.  </i> 262/[<span class="researchdochighlight">2026</span>] 489 ITR 404 (SC) gave a split verdict on this issue, resulting in reference of the matter for the larger bench.</div>
<div><b>11.2. </b>In this regard, it is noted that the Finance Act, <span class="researchdochighlight">2026</span> has introduced the following sub-sections to section 144C and section 153 of the Act with retrospective effect from 01.04.2009 / 01.10.2009 which are relevant to the legal issue raised by the assessee:</div>
<table class="list">
<tbody>
<tr>
<td class="list" align="right" valign="top">(<i>i</i>)</td>
<td class="list" align="justify" valign="top"></td>
<td class="list" align="justify" valign="top">Sub-section (4A) to section 144C</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<table class="list">
<tbody>
<tr>
<td class="list" align="right" valign="top">(<i>ii</i>)</td>
<td class="list" align="justify" valign="top"></td>
<td class="list" align="justify" valign="top">Sub-section (13A) and (13B) to section 144C</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<table class="list">
<tbody>
<tr>
<td class="list" align="right" valign="top">(<i>iii</i>)</td>
<td class="list" align="justify" valign="top"></td>
<td class="list" align="justify" valign="top">Sub-section (10) to section 153</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<div><b>11.3. </b>In view of the above amendments introduced by the Finance Act, <span class="researchdochighlight">2026</span> <i>with retrospective effect</i><i>from</i> 01.04.2009 / 01.10.2009 as noted above, we are of the view that the ground raised by the assessee challenging the limitation to pass the final assessment order is rendered infructuous. Ground no. 21 is accordingly, dismissed as infructuous.</div>
<div><b>12. </b>Ground no. 20 is in respect of initiation of penalty proceedings under section 271(1)(<i>c</i>) of the Act. The said ground is premature at this stage, not requiring any separate adjudication.</div>
<div><b>13. </b>Ground nos. 9, 10, 11, 14, 15, 17 and 18 have not been pressed by the assessee and are therefore, dismissed as not pressed.</div>
<div><b>14. </b>In the result, appeal filed by the assessee is partly allowed.</div>
</div>
</div>
</div>
]]></content:encoded>
					
		
		
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		<item>
		<title>Absence of objective dissatisfaction under Section 14A(2) precludes Assessing Officer from applying Rule 8D.</title>
		<link>https://www.taxheal.com/and-makarand-vasant-mahadeokar-accountant-member-30.html</link>
		
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Ashwani Kumar]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Fri, 11 Sep 2026 06:26:00 +0000</pubDate>
				<category><![CDATA[Income Tax]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Baerlocher India Additives (P.) Ltd.]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Deputy Commissioner]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[IN THE ITAT MUMBAI BENCH]]></category>
		<category><![CDATA[Income tax]]></category>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">https://www.taxheal.com/?p=140493</guid>

					<description><![CDATA[<p>Absence of objective dissatisfaction under Section 14A(2) precludes Assessing Officer from applying Rule 8D. Issue Whether the Assessing Officer was justified in rejecting the assessee&#8217;s suo motu disallowance under Section 14A and invoking the formula prescribed under Rule 8D without recording objective dissatisfaction with the correctness of the assessee&#8217;s accounts and computation. Facts The assessee… <span class="read-more"><a href="https://www.taxheal.com/and-makarand-vasant-mahadeokar-accountant-member-30.html">Read More &#187;</a></span></p>
]]></description>
										<content:encoded><![CDATA[<div id="model-response-message-contentr_35cfb6e7d06bec18" class="markdown markdown-main-panel md-content enable-luminous-fast-follows enable-updated-hr-color tutor-markdown-rendering" dir="ltr" aria-busy="false" aria-live="polite">
<div><strong>Absence of objective dissatisfaction under Section 14A(2) precludes Assessing Officer from applying Rule 8D.</strong></div>
<div><b data-path-to-node="1" data-index-in-node="0">Issue</b></div>
<div>Whether the Assessing Officer was justified in rejecting the assessee&#8217;s <i data-path-to-node="1" data-index-in-node="78">suo motu</i> disallowance under Section 14A and invoking the formula prescribed under Rule 8D without recording objective dissatisfaction with the correctness of the assessee&#8217;s accounts and computation.</div>
<div><b data-path-to-node="2" data-index-in-node="0">Facts</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="3">
<li>
<div>The assessee earned exempt dividend income from mutual funds during AY 2020-21.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>The assessee made a <i data-path-to-node="3,1,0" data-index-in-node="20">suo motu</i> disallowance under Section 14A based on a proportionate share of the salaries of its Finance Head and Accounts Executive, along with communication expenses.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>The Assessing Officer (AO) noted that the assessee maintained common bank accounts, intermingled business and investment funds, and did not establish a direct nexus between investments and surplus funds.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>Referring to the total interest expenditure debited to the profit and loss account, the AO applied Rule 8D and made an additional disallowance.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>The AO did not examine the assessee&#8217;s computation with reference to its books of account, nor did the AO identify any specific expenditure omitted from the assessee&#8217;s <i data-path-to-node="3,4,0" data-index-in-node="167">suo motu</i> calculation.</div>
</li>
</ul>
<div><b data-path-to-node="4" data-index-in-node="0">Decision</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="5">
<li>
<div>Recording a legally sustainable satisfaction or dissatisfaction under Section 14A(2) [Section 14 of the Income-tax Act, 2025] regarding the correctness of the assessee&#8217;s claim is a statutory prerequisite before invoking Rule 8D [Rule 14 of the Income-tax Rules, 2026].</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>General observations regarding intermingled funds or common bank accounts do not automatically establish that the assessee&#8217;s <i data-path-to-node="5,1,0" data-index-in-node="125">suo motu</i> disallowance was incorrect.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>In the absence of a validly recorded dissatisfaction based on account verification, the AO cannot bypass the assessee&#8217;s methodology to apply Rule 8D.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div>The additional disallowance made by the Assessing Officer was ordered to be deleted in full (ruled in favor of the assessee).</div>
</li>
</ul>
<div><b data-path-to-node="6" data-index-in-node="0">Key Takeaways</b></div>
<ul data-path-to-node="7">
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="7,0,0" data-index-in-node="0">Mandatory Prerequisite of Section 14A(2):</b> An Assessing Officer cannot automatically apply Rule 8D without first demonstrating objectively, with reference to the books of account, why the assessee&#8217;s <i data-path-to-node="7,0,0" data-index-in-node="198">suo motu</i> disallowance is incorrect.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="7,1,0" data-index-in-node="0">Insufficiency of General Remarks:</b> Merely citing common bank accounts or intermingling of business and investment funds is insufficient to reject a reasoned <i data-path-to-node="7,1,0" data-index-in-node="156">suo motu</i> disallowance.</div>
</li>
<li>
<div><b data-path-to-node="7,2,0" data-index-in-node="0">Requirement to Identify Omissions:</b> The AO must identify specific items of expenditure attributable to earning exempt income that were omitted from the assessee&#8217;s disallowance before invoking statutory formulas.</div>
</li>
</ul>
<div id="111070000000000011" style="text-align: center;">IN THE ITAT <span class="researchdochighlight">MUMBAI</span> BENCH &#8216;B&#8217;</div>
<div id="" style="text-align: center;">Baerlocher India Additives (P.) Ltd.</div>
<div style="text-align: center;">v.</div>
<div id="" style="text-align: center;">Deputy Commissioner of Income-tax</div>
<div id="dbs_judge" style="text-align: center;"><span id="111170000000010012">Challa Nagendra Prasad</span>, Judicial Member<br />
and <span id="111170000000128139">MAKARAND VASANT MAHADEOKAR</span>, Accountant Member</div>
<div style="text-align: center;">IT Appeal No. 3475 (Mum) of <span class="researchdochighlight">2026</span><br />
[Assessment year 2020-21]</div>
<div style="text-align: center;">AUGUST  19, <span class="researchdochighlight">2026</span></div>
</div>
<div></div>
<div>
<div id="digest">
<div><b>Devendra Jain</b> and <b>Saukhya Lakade</b><i> for the Applicant. </i><b>Shree Kumar C.</b>, Sr. AR<i> for the Respondent.</i></div>
</div>
<div id="caseOrder">
<div>
<div>ORDER</div>
<div></div>
<div><b>Makarand Vasant Mahadeokar, Accountant Member.-</b> This appeal by the assessee is directed against the order dated 15.10.2025 passed by the learned Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals), National Faceless Appeal Centre, Delhi [&#8220;learned CIT(A)&#8221;], under section 250 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 [&#8220;the Act&#8221;], for the assessment year 2020-21. The impugned order arises from the assessment order dated 19.09.2022 passed under section 143(3) read with section 144B of the Act.</div>
<div><b>2. </b><i>Condonation of delay</i></div>
<div><b>2.1. </b>At the outset, it is noted that the present appeal is stated to have been filed with a delay of 85 days. The assessee has filed a petition seeking condonation of the said delay, duly supported by an affidavit of Shri Sandeep Gaglani, Authorised Signatory and Finance Head, India, of the assessee-company.</div>
<div><b>2.2. </b>It is stated in the petition and the supporting affidavit that the impugned order was passed by the learned CIT(A) on 15.10.2025. The Managing Director of the assessee-company was travelling out of station and, consequently, there was a delay in execution of the requisite authorisation in favour of Shri Sandeep Gaglani for filing the present appeal. The assessee has stated that the delay was neither intentional nor deliberate and that it occurred for the reasons set out in the petition and the affidavit. The assessee has accordingly prayed that the delay be condoned and the appeal be admitted for adjudication on merits.</div>
<div><b>2.3. </b>We have considered the explanation furnished by the assessee and perused the petition as well as the supporting affidavit. The delay is not inordinate, and the explanation furnished by the assessee does not indicate any deliberate inaction or want of bona fides. Refusal to condone the delay would result in the assessee being denied an adjudication of its grievance on merits. Having regard to the entirety of the circumstances and in the interest of substantial justice, we are satisfied that the assessee was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal within the prescribed period. The Departmental Representative (DR) raised no objection in condoning the delay.Accordingly, the delay of 85 days is condoned and the appeal is admitted for adjudication on merits.</div>
<div><b>3. </b>The assessee has raised the following grounds of appeal:</div>
<div>1. On the facts and circumstances of the case and in law, the Ld. CIT(A) erred in upholding a disallowance under Section 14A read with Rule 8D of the Act without considering the fact that the AO had mechanically invoked Rule 8D, i.e., without recording the mandatory satisfaction as required under Section 14A (2) of the Act.</div>
<div>2. The Ld. CIT(A) and AO failed to appreciate that the appellant had already made a reasonable suo-moto disallowance under Section 14A and, without examining the correctness of the same with reference to the accounts, proceeded to apply Rule 8D arbitrarily.</div>
<div>3. Without prejudice to the above, no disallowance of interest expenditure could be made under Rule 8D(2)(<i>ii</i>) as the appellant had sufficient own funds far in excess of the investments yielding exempt income.</div>
<div>4. The appellant craves leave to add, alter, amend or withdraw any of the above grounds of appeal.</div>
<div><b>4. </b><i>Facts of the case</i></div>
<div><b>4.1. </b>The assessee is a private limited company engaged in the manufacture and supply of PVC stabilisers and polymer additives. The assessee filed its original return of income for the year under consideration on 29.01.2021, declaring a total income of Rs.59,90,39,932/-. Thereafter, the assessee filed a revised return of income on 30.03.2021. The revised returned income, as reflected in the computation forming part of the assessment order, was Rs.58,80,35,430/-. The case was selected for complete scrutiny under CASS and the statutory notices were issued to the assessee. In response thereto, the assessee furnished the details and explanations called for by the Assessing Officer.</div>
<div><b>4.2. </b>The controversy in the present appeal is confined to the disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D. The Assessing Officer noticed that the assessee had earned dividend income of Rs.1,17,29,599/- during the relevant previous year. In its computation of income, the assessee had made a suo motu disallowance of Rs.3,48,550/- under section 14A of the Act.</div>
<div><b>4.3. </b>During the assessment proceedings, the assessee explained that Kotak Wealth Management had been entrusted with the management of its investment portfolio. According to the assessee, it had not incurred any direct expenditure or paid any interest for making the investments and earning the exempt income. However, considering the time spent by its accounts executive and Head-Finance in attending to communications, paperwork and accounting relating to the investments, the assessee identified salary expenditure of Rs.3,48,550/- as attributable to the investment activity and disallowed the same under section 14A of the Act.</div>
<div><b>4.4. </b>The Assessing Officer did not accept the computation furnished by the assessee. In paragraph 5.3(<i>i</i>) of the assessment order, the Assessing Officer observed that the assessee did not maintain separate bank accounts for its investment and business transactions and that the accounts relating to expenditure and investment were maintained jointly. According to the Assessing Officer, there was a merger of the flow of funds, inter-bank transfers and intermingling of funds used for investments and expenditure. The Assessing Officer further observed that the assessee had not established a direct nexus demonstrating that the investments had been made exclusively out of surplus funds.</div>
<div><b>4.5. </b>The Assessing Officer thereafter discussed the provisions of section 14A and Rule 8D and the object underlying the disallowance of expenditure incurred in relation to income not forming part of the total income. After such discussion, the Assessing Officer recorded in paragraph 5.3(<i>xi</i>) of the assessment order that he was satisfied that the assessee&#8217;s case qualified for disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D.</div>
<div><b>4.6. </b>The assessee furnished the monthly opening and closing balances of the investments. The annual average of the monthly averages of the opening and closing balances of investments was determined at Rs.44,24,50,489/-. The Assessing Officer computed the disallowance under Rule 8D at Rs.44,24,505/- and, after reducing the suo motu disallowance of Rs.3,48,550/- already made by the assessee, made an additional disallowance of Rs.40,75,955/-.</div>
<div><b>4.7. </b>Before finalising the assessment, the Assessing Officer issued a show-cause notice dated 22.03.2022. In its reply dated 25.03.2022, the assessee contended that there was a direct nexus between the investments in mutual funds and its own funds and surplus. It was further contended that the assessee had not borrowed any term loan or working-capital loan for making the investments. The Assessing Officer rejected the explanation on the ground that the assessee maintained common books of account and bank accounts, involving a large number of transactions, and had claimed interest expenditure of Rs.10,83,361/-. The additional disallowance of Rs.40,75,955/-proposed in the show-cause notice was accordingly finalised.</div>
<div><b>5. </b>Aggrieved by the additional disallowance made under section 14A read with Rule 8D, the assessee preferred an appeal before the learned CIT(A). Before the learned CIT(A), the assessee contended that the Assessing Officer had mechanically invoked Rule 8D without recording objective satisfaction as to why the suo motu disallowance of Rs.3,48,550/- was incorrect. It was submitted that such satisfaction was a statutory precondition for invoking the computational mechanism under Rule 8D. The assessee further contended that the actual interest expenditure on borrowings during the year was only Rs.4,726/- and that the investments had been made out of surplus funds. The assessee accordingly contended that no further disallowance was warranted.</div>
<div><b>6. </b>The learned CIT(A) did not accept the contentions of the assessee. The learned CIT(A) held that the Assessing Officer had recorded objective dissatisfaction by referring to the maintenance of common books and bank accounts, the intermingling of funds, the large number of transactions and the total interest expenditure of Rs.10,83,361/- debited to the profit and loss account.</div>
<div><b>7. </b>The learned CIT(A) further held that the assessee had failed to establish, through a specific fund-flow statement or other cogent material, that the investments yielding exempt income had been made exclusively out of non-interest-bearing funds. The contention that the interest expenditure on borrowings was only Rs.4,726/- was rejected on the ground that the relevant amount considered by the Assessing Officer was the total interest expenditure of Rs.10,83,361/- debited to the profit and loss account. The learned CIT(A) accordingly upheld the application of Rule 8D and confirmed the additional disallowance of Rs.40,75,955/-. The appeal of the assessee was consequently rejected.</div>
<div><b>8. </b>During the course of hearing before us the learned AR invited our attention to the detailed written submissions filed before the learned CIT(A). He submitted that the assessee had received exempt dividend income of Rs.1,17,29,599/- from investments in mutual funds. No borrowed funds had been utilised for making such investments and, consequently, no interest expenditure had been incurred in relation thereto. The expenditure having a possible relation with the investment activity principally consisted of the time spent by the employees of the assessee in authorising purchases and redemptions, attending to correspondence, and making telephone calls and emails concerning the investments. Taking these activities into consideration, the assessee had voluntarily disallowed Rs.3,48,550/- under section 14A.</div>
<div><b>9. </b>The learned AR submitted that the entire investmentmanagement function had been entrusted to M/s Kotak Wealth Management. Decisions concerning investment and redemption of mutual funds were taken on the advice of the said investment adviser. M/s Kotak Wealth Management did not charge any fee or commission from the assessee because it was remunerated directly by the respective mutual fund houses by way of trail commission. It was, therefore, submitted that the assessee had not incurred any direct expenditure for obtaining investment advisory services.</div>
<div><b>10. </b>Referring to the nature of the dividend income, the learned AR submitted that the dividend was directly credited to the bank account of the assessee and no independent action or process was required to be undertaken for claiming or receiving the same. The dividend income was therefore passive in nature. The assessee had neither appointed any employee exclusively for investment activity nor incurred any incremental staff or administrative expenditure for earning the exempt income. It was further asserted that fewer than 50 transactions involving the purchase and redemption of mutual funds had taken place during the relevant year.</div>
<div><b>11. </b>The learned AR explained that, notwithstanding the above factual position, the assessee had prudently identified the proportionate salary cost of the Finance Head, India, and the Accounts Executive, along with communication expenses, as expenditure relatable to the investment activity. The working placed before the learned CIT(A) was as follows:</div>
<table class="allborder" width="100%">
<tbody>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Particulars</td>
<td valign="top">Annual cost</td>
<td valign="top">Allocation</td>
<td valign="top">Amount allocated</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Finance Head, India</td>
<td valign="top">Rs.47,71,229/-</td>
<td valign="top">5%</td>
<td valign="top">Rs.2,38,561/-</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Accounts Executive</td>
<td valign="top">Rs.9,49,442/-</td>
<td valign="top">10%</td>
<td valign="top">Rs.94,944/-</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Proportionate salary expenditure</td>
<td valign="top"></td>
<td valign="top"></td>
<td valign="top">Rs.3,33,505/-</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Communication expenses</td>
<td valign="top"></td>
<td valign="top"></td>
<td valign="top">Rs.5,000/-</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Total expenditure as per working</td>
<td valign="top"></td>
<td valign="top"></td>
<td valign="top">Rs.3,38,505/-</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Suo motu disallowance made under section 14A</td>
<td valign="top"></td>
<td valign="top"></td>
<td valign="top">Rs.3,48,550/-</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<div><b>12. </b>On this basis, the learned AR submitted that the suo motu disallowance of Rs.3,48,550/- was reasonable and sufficient to cover the expenditure that could possibly be attributed to the earning of exempt income. There was, therefore, no justification for making any further disallowance.</div>
<div><b>13. </b>As regards the interest expenditure of Rs.10,83,361/-referred to by the Assessing Officer, the learned AR submitted that the said amount comprised the following:</div>
<table class="allborder" width="100%">
<tbody>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Nature of interest expenditure</td>
<td valign="top">Amount</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Interest under sections 234A, 234B and 234C</td>
<td valign="top">Rs.46,410/-</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Interest on delayed payments to MSME suppliers</td>
<td valign="top">Rs.10,32,225/-</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Interest on bank cash-credit facility</td>
<td valign="top">Rs.4,726/-</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top">Total</td>
<td valign="top">Rs.10,83,361/-</td>
</tr>
</tbody>
</table>
<p>&nbsp;</p>
<div><b>14. </b>The learned AR submitted that the interest of Rs.46,410/-under sections 234A, 234B and 234C had already been disallowed in the computation of income. Similarly, the interest of Rs.10,32,225/- payable on delayed payments to MSME suppliers had also been disallowed by the assessee under section 23 of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006. Thus, according to the learned AR, no deduction had been claimed in respect of the aggregate amount of Rs.10,78,635/-.</div>
<div><b>15. </b>The balance amount of Rs.4,726/- represented interest on the utilisation of the bank cash-credit facility. The learned AR submitted that even this expenditure had no direct or indirect nexus with the investments in mutual funds. There were no longterm or short-term borrowings at the beginning or at the end of the relevant year. The interest-free shareholders&#8217; funds available with the assessee as of 31.03.2020 were stated to be approximately Rs.213.06 crore/-, whereas the tax-free investments as of that date were approximately Rs.55.19 crore/-. The average shareholders&#8217; funds during the year were stated to be approximately Rs.191.32 crore/-, which were substantially higher than the peak mutual fund investments of approximately Rs.55.30 crore/-. It was accordingly contended that the investments were made entirely out of the assessee&#8217;s own surplus funds.</div>
<div><b>16. </b>The learned AR further submitted that the Assessing Officer had rejected the assessee&#8217;s explanation principally on the ground that separate bank accounts were not maintained for the investment and business transactions and that there was intermingling of funds. According to the learned AR, there was no statutory requirement to maintain separate books of account or bank accounts for investment activity. The audited financial statements, computation of income and other material furnished during the assessment proceedings sufficiently demonstrated the availability of interest-free funds far in excess of the investments.</div>
<div><b>17. </b>The learned AR also pointed out an internal inconsistency in the assessment order. At one place, the Assessing Officer had recorded that the assessee had earned dividend income of Rs.1,17,29,599/-. However, while discussing the applicability of section 14A, the Assessing Officer proceeded on the premise that the assessee had not earned exempt income during the relevant year. According to the learned AR, this contradiction demonstrated that the submissions and material furnished by the assessee had not been properly examined and that Rule 8D had been invoked mechanically.</div>
<div><b>18. </b>Adverting to section 14A(2), the learned AR submitted that the Assessing Officer could resort to the prescribed method under Rule 8D only after examining the accounts of the assessee and recording an objective dissatisfaction as to the correctness of the claim made by the assessee. The dissatisfaction must be supported by cogent reasons and must identify the particular inaccuracy in the assessee&#8217;s computation or allocation of expenditure. General observations regarding common bank accounts, intermingling of funds and the absence of separate accounts could not satisfy this statutory requirement.</div>
<div><b>19. </b>The learned AR submitted that the Assessing Officer had not pointed out any specific defect in the basis adopted by the assessee for quantifying the suo motu disallowance of Rs.3,48,550/-. The Assessing Officer had also not demonstrated that any particular expenditure debited to the profit and loss account had been incurred in relation to the exempt income. In the absence of such examination and objective dissatisfaction, the invocation of Rule 8D and the consequential additional disallowance were stated to be unsustainable.</div>
<div><b>20. </b>To support his contention, the learned AR relied upon the decisions in <i>Asstt. CIT</i> v. <i>Iqbal M. Chagala </i> (<span class="researchdochighlight">Mumbai</span>)<i>,</i><i>H.T. Media Ltd. </i>v. <i>Pr. CIT </i>399 ITR 576 (Delhi)<i>,</i><i>CIT</i> v. <i>Sociedade De Fomento Industrial (P.) Ltd.  </i> 6/[2020] 429 ITR 358 (Bombay), <i>Kodagu District Co-operative Central Bank Ltd. </i>v. <i>Asstt. CIT </i>431 ITR 356 (Karnataka) and<i></i><i>ACIT</i> v. <i>Reliance Industrial Investments and Holdings Ltd. </i> (<span class="researchdochighlight">Mumbai</span> &#8211; <span class="researchdochighlight">Trib</span>.).</div>
<div><b>21. </b><i>Per contra</i>, the learned DR relied upon the orders of the authorities below. He invited our attention to paragraph 5.3 of the assessment order and submitted that the Assessing Officer had duly recorded the reasons for rejecting the computation furnished by the assessee. The learned DR particularly referred to the observations that the assessee did not maintain separate bank accounts for investment and business transactions; that the accounts relating to expenditure and investment were maintained jointly; that there was intermingling and interlacing of funds; and that the assessee had failed to establish a direct nexus demonstrating that the investments had been made exclusively out of surplus funds.</div>
<div><b>22. </b><i>Per contra</i>, the learned DR relied upon the orders of the authorities below. He invited our attention to paragraph 5.3 of the assessment order and submitted that the Assessing Officer had duly recorded the reasons for rejecting the computation furnished by the assessee. The learned DR particularly referred to the observations that the assessee did not maintain separate bank accounts for investment and business transactions; that the accounts relating to expenditure and investment were maintained jointly; that there was intermingling and interlacing of funds; and that the assessee had failed to establish a direct nexus demonstrating that the investments had been made exclusively out of surplus funds.</div>
<div><b>23. </b>The learned DR further referred to the discussion in the assessment order concerning the object and scope of section 14A and the applicability of Rule 8D. Particular reliance was placed upon paragraph 5.3(<i>xi</i>) of the assessment order, wherein the Assessing Officer recorded that he was satisfied that the assessee&#8217;s case qualified for disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D. On this basis, the learned DR submitted that the statutory requirement of recording dissatisfaction stood satisfied and that the additional disallowance confirmed by the learned CIT(A) did not call for interference.</div>
<div><b>24. </b>We have considered the rival submissions and perused the material available on record. It is undisputed that the assessee earned exempt dividend income of Rs.1,17,29,599/- from investments in mutual funds and made a suo motu disallowance of Rs.3,48,550/- under section 14A of the Act. The assessee did not take the position that no expenditure whatsoever had been incurred in relation to the exempt income. It identified the proportionate salary cost of the Finance Head, India, and the Accounts Executive, together with communication expenditure, as expenditure attributable to the investment activity. The working placed before the authorities below quantified the proportionate salary expenditure at Rs.3,33,505/- and communication expenditure at Rs.5,000/-, aggregating to Rs.3,38,505/-. The assessee nevertheless disallowed a higher amount of Rs.3,48,550/-. Thus, the Assessing Officer was not confronted with a bare or unsupported claim. The assessee had made a positive disallowance supported by an identifiable basis.</div>
<div><b>25. </b>Section 14A(2) does not make Rule 8D the starting point of the exercise. The Assessing Officer must first examine the claim made by the assessee, having regard to its accounts. It is only when he records an objective dissatisfaction concerning the correctness of that claim that the prescribed method becomes operative. A statement that the assessee&#8217;s case qualifies for disallowance under section 14A, without demonstrating why the computation furnished by the assessee is incorrect, does not satisfy this statutory condition.</div>
<div><b>26. </b>Before the learned CIT(A), the assessee had relied upon <i>Godrej &amp; Boyce Manufacturing Company Ltd. </i>v. <i>Dy. CIT </i><a id="anchor_75096.3616148455"></a>[2017]  394 ITR 449 (SC)<i>,</i><i>Maxopp Investment Ltd. </i>v. <i>CIT </i>402 ITR 640 (SC), <i>Pr. CIT</i> v. <i>Tata Capital Ltd. </i>[2025] 475 ITR 559 (Bombay), <i>Kalyani Steels Ltd. </i>v. <i>Addl. CIT</i> [IT Appeal No. 1733 (PN) of 2012, dated 30.01.2014], and <i>Asian Paints Ltd. </i>v. <i>Asstt. CIT </i><a id="anchor_94084.73744122671"></a>[2024]   (<span class="researchdochighlight">Mumbai</span> &#8211; <span class="researchdochighlight">Trib</span>.)/ITA No. 268/Mum./2018, dated 05.03.2024. These decisions were cited for the limited but fundamental proposition that the Assessing Officer must examine the assessee&#8217;s claim with reference to its accounts and record reasons for finding it incorrect before applying Rule 8D. In Godrej &amp; Boyce Manufacturing Co. Ltd., the Hon&#8217;ble Supreme Court held that what the law postulates is the requirement of satisfaction on the part of the Assessing Officer that, having regard to the accounts of the assessee, he is not satisfied with the correctness of the assessee&#8217;s claim, and that only thereafter would section 14A(2) and (3), read with Rule 8D, become applicable. In <i>Maxopp Investment Ltd. </i><i>(supra)</i><i></i>the Hon&#8217;ble Supreme Court, in paragraph 41, similarly observed that &#8220;before applying the theory of apportionment, the AO needs to record satisfaction that having regard to the kind of the assessee, suo moto disallowance under Section 14A was not correct.&#8221;</div>
<div><b>27. </b>The Hon&#8217;ble jurisdictional High Court in Tata Capital Ltd., in paragraph 7, held that &#8220;The most fundamental requirement, therefore, is the Assessing Officer should record his dissatisfaction with the correctness of the claim of Assessee in respect of the expenditure and to arrive at such dissatisfaction, he should give cogent reasons.&#8221; The Coordinate Bench in Kalyani Steels Ltd., in paragraph 8, held that &#8220;the invoking of rule 8D of the Rules in order to compute the disallowance u/s 14A of the Act is neither automatic and nor is triggered merely because assessee has earned an exempt income.&#8221; In Asian Paints Ltd., the Coordinate Bench, in paragraph 12, observed that &#8220;the satisfaction as required to be recorded under the provisions of section 14A of the Act is not limited to merely disagreeing with the submission of the assessee and requires that the AO should also provide the basis for reaching such a conclusion, after having regard to the accounts of the assessee.&#8221;The learned CIT(A), however, referred to Maxopp Investment Ltd. only for the general applicability of section 14A and the principle of apportionment. The requirement stated in paragraph 41 of that decision, as also the ratios of the other decisions cited by the assessee, was neither dealt with nor distinguished.</div>
<div><b>28. </b>Before us, the learned AR placed further reliance upon certain decisions which we proceed to examine.</div>
<div><b>29. </b>In <i>Sociedade De Fomento Industrial (P.) Ltd. </i>(<i>supra</i>), the assessee had invested in mutual funds and asserted that the investments had been made out of surplus funds. The Revenue sought to infer that borrowed funds and common expenditure had been utilised. The Hon&#8217;ble jurisdictional High Court held that the application of section 14A and Rule 8D is not automatic and that the onus lies upon the Revenue to establish a proximate relationship between the expenditure and the exempt income. Paragraphs 19 and 20, which directly govern the present controversy, read as under:</div>
<div>&#8220;19. Here, on facts, the Tribunal noted that the AO only discussed the provisions of section 14A(<i>l</i>) but has not justified how the expenditure the Assessee incurred during the relevant year related to the income not forming part of its total income. The AO, according to the Tribunal, straightaway applied Rule 8D. Indeed, there must be a proximate relationship between the expenditure and the tax-exempt income. Only then would a disallowance have to be effected. This Court, we may note, on more than one occasion, has held that the onus is on the Revenue to establish that there is a proximate relationship between the expenditure and the exempt income. That is, the application of section l4A and rule 8D is not automatic in each and every case, where there is income not forming part of the total income. No doubt, the expenditure under section 14A includes both direct and indirect expenditure, but that expenditure must have a proximate relationship with the exempted income. Surmise or conjecture is no answer.</div>
<div>20. We may further reiterate that before rejecting the disallowance computed by the Assessee, the Assessing Officer must give a clear finding with reference to the Assessee&#8217;s accounts as to how the other expenditure claimed by the Assessee out of the non-exempt income is related to the exempt income.&#8221;</div>
<div><b>30. </b>The decision in <i>H.T. Media Ltd. </i>(<i>supra</i>) is closely comparable on facts. The assessee therein had voluntarily disallowed Rs.3,00,000/- as administrative expenditure attributable to exempt income and explained that the amount had been determined with reference to the cost of its finance department. The Assessing Officer did not examine that computation but recorded general observations concerning the management of investments and thereafter applied Rule 8D. The Hon&#8217;ble Delhi High Court held in paragraphs 34, 35, 37, 38 and 40 as under:</div>
<div>&#8220;34. The Assessee had explained that Rs. 3 lakhs was being disallowed voluntarily as an &#8220;expenditure which could be attributable for earning the said income.&#8221; The Assessee explained that the disallowance had been determined on the basis of cost of finance department in the ratio of exempt income to total turnover. On that basis the disallowance in AY 2005-06 was upheld by CIT (A) at Rs. 1 lakh. The disallowance for this AY was worked out as Rs. 1,42,404/-and since the Assessee had already made a disallowance of Rs. 3 Lacs, no further disallowance was called for.</div>
<div>35. In order to disallow this expense the AO had to first record, on examining the accounts, that he was not satisfied with the correctness of the Assessee&#8217;s claim of Rs. 3 lakhs being the administrative expenses. This was mandatorily necessitated by Section 14 A (2) of the Act read with Rule 8D (1) (<i>a</i>) of the Rules.</div>
<div>37. In the considered view of this Court, the above observations of the AO in the assessment order are of a broad general nature not with particular reference to the facts of the case on hand.</div>
<div>38. The Court is also unable to agree with Mr. Singh that on this aspect there are concurrent findings of both the CIT (A) as well as the ITAT. The CIT (A) disallowed the exempt expenses by merely repeating what the AO had stated about the cost that is built into so called &#8216;passive&#8217; investments and simply recorded that the AO was bound to Rule 8D and, therefore, was justified in determining administrative costs at 0.5%. Here again, the CIT (A) failed to note that without the mandatory requirement, under Section 14A of the Act and Rule 8D of the Rules, of satisfaction being recorded being met, the question of applying Rule 8D (1) did not arise.</div>
<div>40. Consequently on the aspect of administrative expenses being disallowed, since there was a failure by the AO to comply with the mandatory requirement of Section 14 A (2) of the Act read with Rule 8D (1) (<i>a</i>) of the Rules and record his satisfaction as required thereunder, the question of applying Rule 8D (2) (<i>iii</i>) of the Rules did not arise. The question framed in ITA 549 of 2015 is answered accordingly.&#8221;</div>
<div><b>31. </b>The ratio of H.T. Media Ltd. is particularly significant because the assessee before us has also quantified the disallowance with reference to the proportionate cost of personnel in its finance and accounts functions. As in that case, the Assessing Officer here has made broad observations about investment activity without examining the employee-cost computation actually furnished by the assessee.</div>
<div><b>32. </b>In <i>Iqbal M. Chagla</i> (<i>supra</i>), the Assessing Officer had presumed that a part of the salary, telephone and administrative expenditure must relate to exempt income and applied the formula under Rule 8D without establishing the basis of the proposed disallowance. The Coordinate Bench held in paragraph 7 as under:</div>
<div>&#8220;The assessee had not claimed any expenditure in its profit and loss account, so, if the onus was on the Assessing Officer to prove that out of the expenditure incurred under various heads were related to earning of exempt income. Not only this he had to give the basis of such calculation. In any manner disallowance of Rs. 16.35 lakhs, as against the total expenditure of Rs. 13 lakhs (app.) claimed by the assessee in the profit and loss account, is not justified. The provisions of rule 8D cannot and should not be applied in a mechanical way. Facts of the case have to be analysed before invoking them.&#8221;</div>
<div><b>33. </b>In <i>Kodagu District Co-operative Central Bank Ltd. </i>(<i>supra</i>), the Assessing Officer computed a disallowance under Rule 8D merely with reference to the average value of investments. The Hon&#8217;ble Karnataka High Court found that the Assessing Officer had neither determined the expenditure nor recorded reasons concerning the correctness of the assessee&#8217;s claim. The operative part of paragraph 5 reads as under:</div>
<div>&#8220;Thus, from perusal of the order passed by the Assessing Officer, it is evident that the Assessing Officer has not determined the amounts of the expenditure and has not recorded any reasons with regard to correctness of the claim made by the assessee in respect of such expenditure, in relation to the income which does not form part of the total income of the assessee. The Assessing Officer before embarking upon determination of the amount of expenditure incurred in the light of the exempted income, has to record a finding that he is not satisfied with the correctness of the claim of the assessee in respect of such expenditure. The aforesaid mandatory requirement has not been fulfilled by the Assessing Officer before disallowing the assessee under section 14A of the Act.&#8221;</div>
<div><b>34. </b>The decision in <i>Reliance Industrial Investments and Holdings Ltd. </i>(<i>supra</i>) is the closest with reference to the Rule applicable for the year under consideration. That decision concerned assessment years 2018-19 to 2020-21. The assessee had made a suo motu disallowance, whereas the Assessing Officer, being of the view that it was not computed in accordance with Rule 8D, proceeded to determine a substantially higher disallowance at one per cent of the annual average of the monthly average value of investments under Rule 8D(2)(<i>ii</i>). The assessee had explained the basis of its disallowance, the availability of surplus interest-free funds and the nature of expenditure which could not be attributed to exempt income. The Coordinate Bench held in paragraph 46 as under:</div>
<div>&#8220;A reading of sub section (2) of section 14A makes it clear that the A.O. has to record his satisfaction regarding the correctness of suo motu disallowance made by the assessee having regards to the books of accounts. Even Rule 8D also prescribes the same condition. In the facts of the present appeal, as could be seen from the submissions made by the assessee before the A.O., the assessee had stated that it had enough surplus interest free funds available with it to take care of the investments. Therefore, no part of interest expenditure can be attributed for earning of exempt income. The assessee had further stated that the expenditure incurred towards man power supply services having been recovered from the concerns to whom man power was supplied, there is no question of disallowing any part of such expenditure. The assessee had further stated that certain investments made in subsidiaries have not yielded any exempt income. Hence, should not be considered while working out the average value of investment. The assessee has also justified the suo motu disallowance. A reading of the assessment order does not reveal that the A.O. has recorded his dissatisfaction that suo motu disallowance made by the assessee is incorrect having regard to its books of account. The observations of the A.O. are general in nature. He has not even considered the specific submissions of the assessee that expenditure incurred on man power supply has subsequently been recovered as also the fact that investments made in subsidiaries have not yielded any exempt income during the year, hence, should not form part of the average value of investment. Thus, in our view, the A.O. has not recorded satisfaction as required by section 14A(2) of the Act.&#8221;</div>
<div><b>35. </b>The cumulative ratio of the decisions relied upon before us is that the existence of exempt income or the fact that the suo motu disallowance does not correspond to the amount produced by the formula under Rule 8D does not, by itself, permit the Assessing Officer to apply that formula. He must first examine the assessee&#8217;s accounts and the stated basis of the disallowance, identify the expenditure or defect omitted from the computation, and record an objective dissatisfaction supported by reasons. General observations concerning the management of investments, common accounts or the possibility of expenditure do not meet this requirement.</div>
<div><b>36. </b>Tested on the above principles, the observations in paragraph 5.3(<i>i</i>) of the assessment order do not constitute the satisfaction contemplated under section 14A(2). The observations that the assessee did not maintain separate bank accounts, that investment and business funds were intermingled and that the assessee had not established a direct nexus between the investments and surplus funds concern the source of the investments. They do not examine the correctness of the assessee&#8217;s computation of Rs.3,48,550/- based upon proportionate employee cost and communication expenditure. The Assessing Officer did not identify any employee, administrative expense, investment-management expense or other item debited to the profit and loss account that had been omitted from the assessee&#8217;s computation. Nor did he demonstrate why the percentages applied to the salary cost of the Finance Head, India, and the Accounts Executive were incorrect.</div>
<div><b>37. </b>Even with regard to the source of investments, the material explanation furnished by the assessee was not examined. The assessee stated that its interest-free shareholders&#8217; funds as on 31.03.2020 were approximately Rs.213.06 crore/-, whereas its tax-free investments on that date were approximately Rs.55.19 crore/-. The average shareholders&#8217; funds were stated to be approximately Rs.191.32 crore/-, as against the peak mutual fund investments of approximately Rs.55.30 crore/-. These figures were neither controverted nor shown to be incorrect.</div>
<div><b>38. </b>The Assessing Officer also referred to the total interest expenditure of Rs.10,83,361/-. The assessee, however, explained that Rs.46,410/- represented interest under sections 234A, 234B and 234C and Rs.10,32,225/- represented interest on delayed payments to MSME suppliers. Both amounts had already been disallowed in the computation of income. The balance interest expenditure was only Rs.4,726/- relating to a bank cash-credit facility. The assessment order does not controvert this breakup or establish any nexus between the interest expenditure of Rs.4,726/- and the mutual fund investments. The learned CIT(A) characterised the contention concerning Rs.4,726/- as misleading without dealing with the detailed breakup or the fact that the aggregate amount of Rs.10,78,635/- had already been disallowed.</div>
<div><b>39. </b>The reasoning in the assessment order also contains material internal inconsistencies. In paragraph 5.1, the Assessing Officer acknowledged that the assessee had earned dividend income of Rs.1,17,29,599/-. In paragraph 5.3(<i>viii</i>), however, he proceeded to reject an alleged contention that no exempt income had been earned during the year, although no such contention had been advanced by the assessee. The assessment order also refers to investments in shares, whereas the investments under consideration were in mutual funds. In this background, the statement in paragraph 5.3(<i>xi</i>) that the Assessing Officer was satisfied that the assessee&#8217;s case qualified for disallowance under section 14A read with Rule 8D is merely a conclusion regarding the general applicability of the provision. It is not a reasoned dissatisfaction with the correctness of the assessee&#8217;s computation having regard to its accounts.</div>
<div><b>40. </b>The learned CIT(A) treated the maintenance of common books and bank accounts, the intermingling of funds, the number of transactions and the debit of total interest expenditure of Rs.10,83,361/- as sufficient satisfaction. In doing so, the learned CIT(A) merely endorsed the general observations of the Assessing Officer without examining whether they demonstrated any defect in the salary-based computation furnished by the assessee. The authorities cited before the learned CIT(A) were not dealt with in the context in which they had been relied upon, and the subsequent binding decision in Tata Capital Ltd. was neither followed nor distinguished.</div>
<div><b>41. </b>We also note that Rule 8D(2) was substituted by the Income-tax (Fourteenth Amendment) Rules, 2016, with effect from 02.06.2016. For A.Y. 2020-21, the applicable Rule provided for the aggregate of direct expenditure under clause (<i>i</i>) and one per cent of the annual average of the monthly averages of the opening and closing balances of the value of the relevant investments under clause (<i>ii</i>), subject to the prescribed ceiling. The learned CIT(A), however, discussed Rule 8D(2)(<i>ii</i>) as an interest component and Rule 8D(2)(<i>iii</i>) as an administrative component, which was the structure of the Rule prior to its substitution. This is an additional infirmity in the impugned order. The decisive defect, however, is anterior to the computation. In the absence of a legally sustainable dissatisfaction under section 14A(2), the Assessing Officer could not proceed to the prescribed formula.</div>
<div><b>42. </b>In view of the foregoing discussion, we hold that the assessee had made a positive and reasoned suo motu disallowance of Rs.3,48,550/- based upon the proportionate employee cost and communication expenditure attributable to the investment activity. The Assessing Officer neither examined that computation with reference to the accounts nor identified any specific expenditure omitted therefrom. The observations concerning common bank accounts, intermingling of funds and absence of separate accounts did not establish that the assessee&#8217;s computation was incorrect. The explanation regarding the composition of the interest expenditure and the availability of substantial own funds was also not properly examined. The internal inconsistencies in the assessment order further show that part of the reasoning was unrelated to the actual facts of the assessee&#8217;s case. The learned CIT(A) did not cure these deficiencies.</div>
<div><b>43. </b>Consequently, the condition precedent prescribed under section 14A(2) for invoking Rule 8D was not satisfied. The additional disallowance of Rs.40,75,955/- made by the Assessing Officer and sustained by the learned CIT(A) cannot be upheld. We accordingly direct the Assessing Officer to delete the additional disallowance of Rs.40,75,955/-. The suo motu disallowance of Rs.3,48,550/- made by the assessee shall remain undisturbed.</div>
<div><b>44. </b>Ground Nos.1 and 2 are accordingly allowed. In view of the deletion of the entire additional disallowance, Ground No.3, being an alternative ground, has become academic and requires no separate adjudication. Ground No.4 is general in nature and requires no adjudication.</div>
<div><b>45. </b>In the result, the appeal of the assessee is allowed.</div>
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